The civil services got a major upliftment with the introduction of CSAT. Earlier the government of India had witnessed some irregularities with the pattern of preliminary examination as not all topics were given due attention and the overall paper was a sort of unfair treatment for applicants. This is the exact reason why UPSC and the Indian government came up with the CSAT.

The UPSC CSAT stands for the Civil Services Aptitude Test and will test the aptitude of the applicant unlike its previous counterpart which tests memory of a contender. It has changes in its General Studies paper. You will be surprised to know that nearly five million applicants submit an application for the preliminary civil services examination. Thus the competition is fierce, cut throat and not to mention aggressive which is why it is imperative for you to lay your hands on CSAT Study Material and make certain that you are prepared to embark on this journey.

Here are some tips to help you excel in your endeavor. Go through NCERT Books from class vi to x and always remain up to date by reading newspaper daily. Going through regular magazines which proffer significant insights into GK, current affairs, etc. will also be an added advantage. Make sure you are medically fit and that your personality is a superior one. It is also imperative to work on your communication skills and make certain that you are fully prepared for interview if you passed the written exams.

Prepare at least a year or more in advance as the preparation will surely consume some time keeping in eye the vast curriculum. Not only you have to excel in the prelim and the main written examination, but also have to perform excellently in the interview round as all the marks are combined and your result depends on the performance in each one of them. Also make sure that you put into practice CSAT Practice Tests.

Among the thousands of civil services aspirants are three inmates of Tihar Prisons, including a murder convict and an IITian, who appeared in the examination this time.

Siddharth Singh Sidar from Chhattisgarh, who is undergoing imprisonment for cheating and once trained IAS aspirants, Amit Jha from Bihar who was held for kidnapping and Sandeep from Uttar Pradesh, serving life imprisonment in a murder case, undertook the civil services preliminary examination.

Sidar, an IITian from Kharagpur, and Jha both came to Delhi to prepare for civil services before they were jailed.

All three are lodged inside Jail No. 3 of the Tihar Prison.

The results are expected to be out in about 45 days.

In 2009, a convict in a rape case had appeared for the civil services examination for the first time and was set free by the court after he qualified.

1. Where is the Indus Civilization city Lothal ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

2. Mohenjo Daro is situated in—
(A) Sindh Province of Pakistan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Afghanistan
Ans : (A)

3. Which deity was not worshipped by the Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Indra
(B) Marut
(C) Varun
(D) Pashupati
Ans : (D)

4. The Vedanga consists of the—
(A) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(B) Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(C) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish
(D) Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda
Ans : (A)

5. The earliest available work of the Sangam Tamils is—
(A) Pattinappalai
(B) Tirumurugarruppadai
(C) Maduraikanchi
(D) Tolkappiyam
Ans : (D)

6. The Mahavir belonged to the clan—
(A) Kalams
(B) Bhaggas
(C) Lichhivis
(D) Bulis
Ans : (C)

7. The Jain text which contains the biographies of the Tirthankaras is known as—
(A) Bhagwatisutra
(B) Uvasagadasao
(C) Adi Purana
(D) Kalpasutra
Ans : (D)

8. The first Buddhist Sangeeti (conference) was held at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)

9. The propounder of the Madhyamika Philosophy was—
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Parshwanath
(C) Sheelbhadra
(D) Nagarjuna
Ans : (D)

10. The rules of Buddhist monistic life are laid down, primarily, in—
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Vinayapitaka
(C) Abhidhammapitaka
(D) Suttapitaka
Ans : (B)

11. The battle between Alexander and Porus took place on the bank of river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Ravi
(C) Jhelum
(D) Ganga
Ans : (C)

12. The first Persian ruler who occupied part of Indian Territory was—
(A) Cyrus
(B) Darius I
(C) Cambyses
(D) Xerxes
Ans : (B)

13. Alexander remained in India for—
(A) 29 months
(B) 39 months
(C) 19 months
(D) 10 months
Ans : (C)

14. Gedrosia corresponds to modern—
(A) Baluchistan
(B) Lahore
(C) Multan
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (A)

15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) Formal accession of Asoka was very probably delayed
(B) The fifth rock edict proves the existence of Harems of Asoka’s brothers
(C) Asoka held the viceroyalty of Taxila and Ujjain in the reign of Bindusara
(D) Asoka was the younger brother of Bindusara
Ans : (D)

16. The nirvasita (excluded) and anirvasita (not excluded) Shudras have been referred to—
(A) in the Nirukta of Yaska
(B) in the Ashtadhyayi of Panini
(C) in the Arthashastra of Kautilya
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

17. The first translator of Mahabharata into Tamil was—
(A) Perundevanar
(B) Kamban
(C) Sundaramurthi
(D) Bharavi
Ans : (A)

18 Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to the grant of concession in land revenue to a village ?
(A) Lumbini Pillar edict
(B) Sarnath Pillar edict
(C) Girnar Rock edict
(D) Sanchi Pillar edict
Ans : (A)

19. Who of the following was not a patron of Jainism ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Kharvela
(C) Kanishka
(D) Chandragupta Maurya
Ans : (A)

20. Who was the ambassador in the Court of Bindusara ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Deimachus
(D) Antiochus I
Ans : (C)

21. To propagate his Dhamma, Asoka used the services of—
(A) Rajukas
(B) Pradeshikas
(C) Yuktas
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

22. The last king of Mauryan empire was—
(A) Devavarman
(B) Brihadrath
(C) Kunala
(D) Shalishuk
Ans : (B)

23. The historian Kalhan was—
(A) Buddhist
(B) Brahmin
(C) Jain
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

24 Founder of the Satvahana dynasty was—
(A) Shatkarni I
(B) Simuka
(C) Shatkarni II
(D) Rudradaman I
Ans : (B)

25. Yen-Kao-Chen is generally known as—
(A) Kadphises I
(B) Kadphises II
(C) Kanishka
(D) Vasishka
Ans : (B)

26. The writer of the ‘Kalpasutra’ was—
(A) Simuka
(B) Panini
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (C)

27. The writer of the ‘Brihatkatha’ was—
(A) Dattamitra
(B) Gudadhya
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Sarvavarman
Ans : (B)

28. According to tradition Kashyapa Matanga introduced Buddhism to—
(A) China
(B) Kashmir
(C) Ceylon
(D) Gandhar
Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of era in India ?
(A) Gupta—Harsha—Vikram—Shaka
(B) Vikram—Harsha—Gupta—Shaka
(C) Gupta—Shaka—Vikram—Harsha
(D) Vikram—Shaka—Gupta—Harsha
Ans : (D)

30. During Pre-Gupta period what was Kahapan ?
(A) An office
(B) A luxury item
(C) A coin
(D) A port
Ans : (C)

31. Which port was known to the author of “Periplus of the Erithrian Sea” as Padouke ?
(A) Tamralipti
(B) Arikmedu
(C) Broach
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)

32 Chandragupta-II married his daughter Prabhavati to—
(A) Rudrasena-I
(B) Rudrasena-II
(C) Agnimitra
(D) Nagsena
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following law givers of the post-Gupta period declared that Sudras were not slaves by nature ?
(A) Medhatithi
(B) Vigynaeshwar
(C) Narad
(D) Jimutwahan
Ans : (A)

34. Who was the founder of Gahadwala dynasty who made Kannauj the main centre of his power ?
(A) Jaichandra
(B) Vijaychandra
(C) Chandradev
(D) Govind
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the following Rashtrakut kings defeated the Pratihar ruler Nagabhatta I ?
(A) Indra II
(B) Krishna III
(C) Amoghvarsha I
(D) Govind III
Ans : (D)

36. Who among the following rulers patronized Jayadev, the composer of ‘Geetgovinda’ ?
(A) Laxman Sen
(B) Kharvel
(C) Kumarpala
(D) Shashank
Ans : (A)

37. Who out of the following ousted Jainism from Mysore ?
(A) Naynars
(B) Lingayats
(C) Alwars
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans : (D)

38. Which was the word used for the royal military troops of the Cholas ?
(A) Kattupaddi
(B) Kaikkolar
(C) Bhrtaka
(D) Kadgham
Ans : (B)

39. The Chola rulers undertook extensive land survey to ascertain—
(A) Right of ownership
(B) Government’s share of revenue
(C) Production of grains
(D) Limit of the sources of irrigation
Ans : (B)

40. Which of the following taxes of Chola period was for educational purpose ?
(A) Devadana
(B) Salabhoga
(C) Brahmadeva
(D) Sarvamanya
Ans : (A)

41. The writer of Tabqat-i-Nasiri was—
(A) Barani
(B) Nizamuddin
(C) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(D) Isami
Ans : (C)

42. The following works were written by Ziauddin Barani—
(A) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Qiranussadain
(B) Fatwa-i-Jahandari and Ashiqa
(C) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari
(D) Futuhus-salatin and Tarikhi-Firozshahi
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following books were written by Amir Khusro ?
(A) Ashiqa, Qiranussadain, Khazain-ul-Futuh
(B) Qiranussadain, Ashiqa, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi
(C) Khazainul Futuh, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Ashiqa
(D) Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Nuh-i-Siphr, Ashiqa
Ans : (A)

44. Who wrote ‘Qanun-i-Humayuni’ ?
(A) Gulbadan Begum
(B) Yahya
(C) Khwandmir
(D) Nizamuddin
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following books was written by Ishwardas Nagar ?
(A) Futuhat-i-Alamgiri
(B) Bir Binod
(C) Chhatra Prakash
(D) Ahkam-i-Alamgiri
Ans : (A)

46. With whom of the following Muhammad Ghori aligned against Khusrau Shah ?
(A) King of Gujarat
(B) King of Multan
(C) King of Peshawar
(D) King of Jammu
Ans : (D)

47. At the time of Muhammad Ghori’s invasion against Prithviraj Chauhan who of the following ruled Kannauj ?
(A) The Chandellas
(B) The Pratihars
(C) The Palas
(D) The Gahadwalas
Ans : (D)

48. Who of the following contested with Qutubuddin Aibak for Punjab ?
(A) Ikhtiyaruddin
(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz
(C) Nasiruddin Qubacha
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Who were the Nav Musalmans of the following ?
(A) Descendants of Mongols who settled near Delhi and embraced Islam
(B) Hindu converts to Islam
(C) Khalji Sultans
(D) Ilbari Sultans
Ans : (A)

50. Who was appointed as ambassador to China during the time of Mohammad bin Tughlaq ?
(A) Barbosa
(B) Barani
(C) Ibn Batutah
(D) Abdur Razzak
Ans : (C)

Q. 1. Which one of the following is an example of anticipatory socialization?

(a) Parents socializing their unmarried daughters for appropriate adjustments with their husbands’ families in the life after marriage

(b) A house-wife teaching her maid about proper ways of doing things in the household

(c) Training of soldiers to fight enemies

(d) A manager undergoing a training programme for improving his communication skills

Ans. (a)

Q. 2. Social distance scale as a technique for measuring attitudes was developed by:

(a) L. Thurstone

(b) L. Guttmann

(c) A.L. Lundberg

(d) E. Bogardus

Ans. (d)

Q. 3. A process whereby the norms and rules in various social settings grow and crystallize is called:

(a) Socialization

(b) Interaction

(c) Sanskritization

(d) Institutionalization

Ans. (a)

Q. 4. Weber’s typology of action include:

(a) Action and reaction

(b) Rational action in relation to goal, rational action in relation to value, emotional action and traditional action

(c) Traditional action, charismatic action arid rational action

(d) class-based action and status-based action

Ans. (b)

Q. 5. The term kinship refers to a set of relationships between:

(a) Consanguineal relatives

(b) Affinal relatives

(c) Relatives of three generations

(d) Consanguineal and Affinal relatives

Ans. (d)

Q. 6. If a married couple lives with a brother of the groom’s mother, then the couple follows which one of the following residency rules?

(a) Uxorilocal

(b) Neolocal residence

(c) Avunculocal residence

(d) Virilocal

Ans. (c)

Q. 7. Match List I with List- II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Concepts)                                 List-II (Explanation)

A. Affinal kin                                           1. Male ancestor

B. Descent                                                2. Relatives of three generations

C. Agnates                                                3. Wife

D. Lineage                                               4. Mother

5. Ambilateral

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 5 1 2

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 3 1 4 2

(d) 2 5 1 3

Ans. (a)

Q. 8. Match List- I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Term) List-II (Concept)

A. Avoidance                1. Marriage

B. Joint family              2. Kinship group

C. Gotra                        3. Exogamy

D. Sororate                   4. Kinship usage

5. Cult

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 5 1 4

(b) 4 2 3 1

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 5 3 1

Ans. (a)

Q. 9.

Which of the following relationship are revealed through the above chart?

(a) Polygyny and cross cousin marriage

(b) Polyandry and Sororate

(c) Matrilineal joint family

(d) Polyandry and cross cousin marriage

Ans. (d)

Q. 10. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Primary consanguineal   : Blood relatives

(b) Secondary kin                 : Wife

(c) Extended family             : Secondary group

(d) Polyandry                       : Plurality of wives

Ans. (a)

Q. 11. A marriage always occurring outside a certain group of relations, is called:

(a) Hypergamy

(b) Endogamy

(c) Exogamy

(d) Hypogamy

Ans. (c)

Q. 12. According to Hindu traditional belief, marriage is a:

(a) Contract

(b) Sacrament

(c) Bond

(d) Formality

Ans. (b)

Q. 13. Consider the following characteristics:

1. Husband may be a casual visitor.

2. Wives come to live in the houses of their husbands.

3. Children have ordinarily no right over property of the mother’s family.

4. Father is the supreme head of the family.

Which of these characteristics are those of a Patriarchal family?

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (a)

Q. 14. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of classification of family into matrilineal and patrilineal family?

(a) Residence of spouse

(b) Sexual division of labour

(c) Descendants of the same ancestor

(d) Differential power of male and female

Ans. (b)

Q. 15. Consider the following stages of evolutions:

1. Monogamy

2. Polygyny

3. Polyandry

4. Promiscuity

According to unilineal evolutions, the universally correct sequence of these evolutions is:

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

(b) 4, 3, 1, 2

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1

(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

Ans. (c)

Q. 16. The existence of structural inequalities between groups in a given society in terms of their differential access to material of symbolic rewards is called:

(a) differentiation

(b) stratification

(c) multiculturalism

(d) heterogeneity

Ans. (b)

Q. 17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Concept)                           List-II (Explanations)

A. Class                                        1. Politically sanctioned

B. Status group                             2. Physical characteristics

C. Estate                                       3. Life chance

D. Race relations                          4. Life style

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (d)

Q. 18. In the event of a decline in the rate of socio-economic change, social mobility likewise tends to decline in:

(a) Caste stratification

(b) Estate stratification

(c) Class stratification

(d) Ethnic stratification

Ans. (c)

Q. 19. Upward or downward social mobility in a stratification system within the course of an individual’s career is called:

(a) zero-sum mobility

(b) horizontal mobility

(c) inter-generational mobility

(d) intra-generation mobility

Ans. (d)

Q. 20. According to Karl Marx, class membership depends upon:

(a) power

(b) prestige

(c) mode of productivity

(d) productivity relations

Ans. (d)

Q. 21. Consider the following statements:

1. Marx distinguished between class-in-itself and class-for-itself.

2. Marx distinguished between class and status group.

3. Marx distinguished between bourgeoisie and proletariat.

4. Marx distinguished between productivity relations and mode or productivity.

Which of these correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

Q. 22. According to Max Weber maximum members of the same:

(a) class have common life style

(b) class have common life chances

(c) class belong to the same status group

(d) status group belong to the same class

Ans. (b)

Q. 23. Who among the following viewed feudal society as an intermediate stage both chronologically and logically between the slave and modern capitalism?

(a) Lenin

(b) Stalin

(c) Durkheim

(d) Marx and Engels

Ans. (b)

Q. 24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Books)                                       List-II (Authors)

A. History of Trade Unionism                 1. V. V. Giri

B. Labour problems in Indian Industry    2. S. M. Lipset

C. The New Men of Power                      3. C. W. Mills

D. Union Democracy                               4. S. D. Punekar

5. Sydney and Beatrice Webb

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 5

(b) 5 4 2 3

(c) 3 4 2 5

(d) 5 1 3 2

Ans. (b)

Q. 25 Which of the following types of authority have been identified by Max Weber?

(a) Rational, emotional and traditional

(b) Rational, charismatic and traditional

(c) Traditional, modem and post-modern

(d) Traditional, modern and post-modem

Ans. (b)

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be
stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given
for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining
questions selecting at least one question from each Section.
Assume suitable data if considered necessary and indicate the same clearly.
All questions carry equal marks.

SECTION – A
1. Write notes on any THREE of the following in about 200 words each:
(a) Explain Accounting Standard related to Depreciation Accounting. 20
(b) Distinguish between Cost Control and Cost Reduction. 20
(c) Discuss Agricultural Income. 20

(d) Discuss appointment of an auditor under Companies Act, 1956. 20
2. (a) What do you mean by Reconstruction of Company? State the essential features of internal
reconstruction of a company. Does it necessarily involve reduction of capital? 30
(b) The following particulars relate to Reliance Ltd.:
(i) Average capital employed in the company Rs. 5,00,000.
(ii) Net trading profits of the company for the past three years (after taxation) were Rs.
1,05,000, Rs. 94,000 and Rs. 1,10,000.
(iii) Rate of expected return 15% per annum.
(iv) Fair remuneration to the directors for their services Rs. 13,000 per annum.
Calculate the goodwill on the following basis:
(A) Five years’ purchase of the annual average of super-profits,
(B) Capitalisation of the annual average of super-profits at the reasonable return of 15% and
(C) An annuity of super-profits, taking the present value of annuity of one rupee for five years
at 15% interest as Rs. 3.87. 30

3. (a) Explain the term Budgetary Control. How does it operate as a tool of management control? 30
(b) The following informations relate to Good Luck Limited for the years 2005:
Variable Expenses (at 50% of capacity)
Materials Rs. 21,70,000
Labour Rs. 20,40,000
Other Expenses Rs. 7,90,000
Semi-variable Expenses (at 50% of capacity)
Repairs and Maintenance Rs. 3,70,000
Indirect Labour Rs. 7,50,000
Sales Department Salaries Rs. 4,00,000
Sundry Administrative Expenses Rs. 2,80,000
Fixed Expenses
Salaries Rs. 8,50,000
Wages Rs. 2,50,000
Rent and Rates Rs. 4,60,000
Insurance Rs. 3,50,000
Depreciation Rs. 5,40,000
Sundry Administrative Expenses Rs. 5,50,000
Assume that the fixed expenses remain constant for all levels of production, semi-variable
expenses remain constant between 45% and 65% of capacity, increase by 10% between 65%
and 80% of capacity and by 20% between 80% and 100% of capacity.
Sales at various levels are:
Rs. (lakhs)
50% capacity 100
60% capacity 120
75% capacity 150
90% capacity 180
100% capacity 200
Prepare a flexible budget for the year and forecast the profits at 60%, 75%, 90% and
100% of capacity. 30

4. (a) What do you understand by capital gains? What are the incomes included under the head capital
gains? 30
(b) Under what circumstances may an auditor be held liable criminally? Explain the provisions of
Companies Act, 1956 in this regard. 30
____________________________________________________________________________________

SECTION – B
5. Answer any three of the following is not more than 200 words each:
(a) Explain objectives of Financial Management. 20
(b) Discuss Capital Budgeting. 20
(c) Distinguish between Money Market and Capital Market. 20
(d) What are the causes of industrial sickness? 20

6. (a) What do you mean by financial leverage? Write the importance and limitations of it. 30
(b) The capital structure of Microsoft Ltd. is as follows:
Rs. (lakhs)
Equity Share Capital 400
12% Debentures 400
18% Term Loan 1200
(i) Determine the weighted average cost of capital of Microsoft Ltd. It has been paying
dividend at a consistent rate of 20% p.a.
(ii) What difference will it make in the weighted average cost of capital if the current market
price of the Rs. 100 equity share is Rs. 160? 30

7. (a) What do you understand by dividend policy? Explain the various factors which influence the
dividend decision of a company. 30
(b) The Progressive Corporation Ltd. currently has an equity share capital of Rs. 40 lakh consisting
of 40,000 equity shares of Rs. 100 each. The management of the company is planning to raise
further Rs. 30 lakh to finance a major expansion project through one of the four possible financial
plans. The options are
(i) Entirely through issue of equity shares.
(ii) Rs. 15 lakh from the issue of equity shares of Rs. 100 each and the balance from the
issue of 8% Debentures.
(iii) Rs. 10 lakh from the issue of equity shares of Rs. 100 each and the balance through long
term borrowings at 9% interest p.a.
(iv) Rs. 15 lakh from the issue of equity shares of Rs. 100 each and the balance through issue
of preference shares with 5% dividend per annum.
The corporation’s expected earning before interest and taxes will be Rs. 15 lakh. Assuming tax
rate of 50%, you are required to determine the earning per share. Comment on the financial
leverage that will be authorised under each of the above schemes of financing. 30

8. (a) Define capital structure. Discuss the factors which influence the planning of capital structure. 30
(b) The Birla Manufacturing buys and uses a component for its production at Rs. 10 per unit. Annual
requirement is 2000 units. Carrying cost of inventory is 10% p.a. and ordering cost is Rs. 40 per
order. The purchase manager proposes that as the ordering cost is very high, it is advantageous
to place a single order for the entire annual requirement. He also says that if we order 2000 units
at a time, we can get 2% discount from the supplier.
Evaluate the proposal and make your recommendations. 30

Exams are the yardsticks through which the performance of a particular individual is evaluated. It is an obvious fact then that the examination and its preparation play a very significant part in an individual’s academic record. Every individual wants to excel in the exams but only a few know the proper technique to score the maximum possible marks in a particular examination. To help the students to tackle the problems and fears regarding the exams, following are the main tips for the most efficient exam preparation.

1. The first step toward an efficient exam preparation is to make sure that the students start early. It is true that the preparation for the exams get vigorous in the last few days of the exams, but the wisest students prefer to keep it slow and steady.
2. To be familiar with the examination pattern, one should collect the previous year’s exam papers. This inculcates the confidence in the students to take the exam with a trust in them.
3. Plan the time for an efficient exam preparation. Those who organize their time according to the syllabus left are the ones who are successful in obtaining the maximum marks in the exams.
4. If it is possible, then one should always talk to a person who has already appeared in the particular exam. This helps in a lot as it reveals some unknown aspects of the exam.

Keeping apart the academic factors, there are several physical factors that play a crucial role in efficient exam preparation. The person who is going to appear in the exam should have ample sleep before the exam. The routine should be kept as normal as possible and one should avoid heavy and oily food.

It should always be considered that a healthy mind with a healthy body is the combination that is required for the maximization of results.

1. You need a dedicated study area. That means you need to find a good place to study that’s quiet, has plenty of room to spread out books and papers, and offers plenty of good lighting.

2. You should have your study tools handy – you need writing paper, note cards (like index cards), pens, markers / highlighters, colored pencils, yellow sticky notes, a small dictionary, calculator, and a folder to keep your papers organized.

3. Get a tutor or study buddy when possible, and be one yourself (you can often learn by teaching!)

4. Review your notes from class/books and rewrite them, clearing up any points necessary and reinforcing them.

5. Compare study notes and class notes with those of others. Fill in what they have that you don’t. Get help understanding what you may have missed. Highlight or underline important points.

6. Read all of your assignments, required book chapters, lessons, etc. Take notes, then go back and re-read again. Jot down questions about anything you do not understand and follow up as best you can.

7. Use practice exams or old tests when studying.

8. Learn to make outlines and outline important information from each lesson, each chapter.

9. Use note cards to make your own flashcards. Then don’t just memorize, but really try to learn the information.

Books for Paper 1 of IAS Preliminary Examination:

* General Studies Manual by Tata McGraw Hill * India’s Struggle for Independence by Bipin Chandra (for History part) * Geography NCERT text books Class XI and XII * Oxford Student Atlas (for map-based questions * Spectrum’s Indian Economy * General Science NCERT text books Class VIII to X * Manorama Year Book (for questions on General Knowledge and Current Affairs) * Our Constitution by Subhash Kashyap (for questions on Indian Polity)

Books for Paper 2:

* RS Agarwal’s Quantitative Aptitude and MBA notes on mental ability and statistics (for tackling questions relating to Mathematics and Statistics) * A good book on English Comprehension (this will enable students to tackle questions relating to English passage included in the new IAS syllabus) * A book on enhancing decision making and problem solving skills * A book on on effective interpersonal communication to tackle questions on this new topic

Apart from the books listed above civil services aspirants should also refer a good newspaper like The Hindu and few relevant magazines for tackling questions on current affairs, general knowledge, and environmental issues. Also IAS exam aspirants will score well in the Preliminary exam if they try to improve their communication skills as this is a important requirement for serving in the civil service.

Setting the stage for civil service aspirants to be tested for their aptitude rather than their memory, the government on Monday announced the outline of the new Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) and changes in the General Studies paper that would requires aspirants to be as well versed in environmental studies — say climate change — as social development.

Five lakh aspirants apply for the Civil Services Examination (Preliminary) every year. To help aspirants understand the new format, the Union Public Service Commission has been told to make the detailed syllabus public early.

“The government has also accepted UPSC’s proposal to put out sample papers of the new format,” a Department of Personnel and Training official said.

In its new form, the preliminary exam will have a tweaked General Studies paper and replace the Optional Paper — selected by candidates from a list of two dozen-odd subjects — with the CSAT.

The two papers will be a screening test to shortlist candidates for the Mains exam and interview.

General Studies (GS) has to be prepared on quite a different plane because the content of this paper is too spread out and because any issue, major or minor, can be asked objectively. Traditionally, 10 + 2 level books of NCERT or any state education board had been covering a major part of the content but, these days, the items in news during the last one year or so, are being asked quite frequently. Problems are generally faced in everyday science or in mental ability or in the fundamentals of economics. The most important aspect for the preparation of GS Prelims, therefore, is to identify the loop-holes and plug them urgently.

NCERT books and IGNOU material are found to be sufficient to cover the history of modern India and Indian culture. The questions will cover history of the country from the middle of the nineteenth century and also take into account important personalities and social reformers who shaped the freedom movement. The part relating to Indian culture will cover all aspects from the ancient to modern times as well as principal features of literature, arts and architecture. Organised notes on the portion are crucial.

NCERT books and an atlas are vital for questions on geography which includes physical, economic and social geography of India.

Books on the Introduction to the Constitution of India, and our Parliament are enough to answer questions on the legal, administrative and other issues emerging from current politico-administrative developments.

Magazines such as Yojana and Kurukshetra of the Publication Division are vital.

Equal importance has to be given for all the topics mentioned in the syllabus. Analysis of current issues in broadsheet newspapers and magazines can help the aspirant answer questions on India’s relationship with the world in various spheres including defence-related matters, nuclear policy and Indian diaspora.

Basic ideas about computers, robotics, nanotechnology, biotechnology and related issues regarding intellectual property rights can be gained from NCERT books and CSIR publications.