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IAS Papers : Geography Paper II (Main) 2007

Ambuj Meher — Sun, 07 Mar 2010 10:48:23 +0000

GEOGRAPHY
Paper- II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions.
The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketch map and diagrams.

1. Mark on the outline map of India supplied any ten of the following entries. Write brief notes (not exceeding 30 words each) on the significant aspects of the same ten entries: 6×10=60

(a). Nagarjuna Sagar

(b). Dharmasala

(c). Aizawl

(d). Konkan Railway

(e). Kovalam Beach

(f). NagaIjuna Sagar

(g). Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

(h). ICRISAT

(i). Vishakhapatnam Port

(j). Panna

(k). Nuclear Fuel Complex

(l). Gurgaon

(m). Bodh Gaya

2. Explain the different views put forth about the origin of Himalayas and divide Himalayas into vertical divisions. 60

3. Discuss the need of conservation and utility of water resource in India. 60

4.”The institutional factors have grip over the crop pattern and crop productivity on Indian agriculture.” Justify. 60

Section-B

5. Answer any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20×3=60

a) Discuss the policies and programmes of Integrated Rural Development Programmes in India.

(b) Explain the causes and consequences of migration.

(e) Write a critical note on the Cauvery River Dispute.

(d) Critically examine the Panchayati Raj setup.

6. Bring out the impact of multinationals and liberalization on the Industrial Economy Pattern of India. 60

7. Discuss environmental problems of India in the context of rapid economic development and population growth. 60

8.”Slums are urban menace.” Elucidate with Indian cities as examples. 60

IAS Papers : General Studies Paper II (Main) 2007

Ajit kumar singh — Sun, 07 Mar 2010 10:42:36 +0000

GENERAL STUDIES
Paper- II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question

1. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15×2=30

(a) Indo-Russian Defence Co-operation

(b) India’s response, to political crisis In Bangladesh

2. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 wordS): 2×5= I 0

(a) SAFTA

(b) India and East Asia Summit (EAS)

(d) Panchsheel in India’s Foreign Policy

(e) Relevance of NAM

3. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words) : 2×5=10

(a) Pravasi Bhartiya Bima Yojana, 2006

(b) Indian All-Women Contingent to Liberia

(d) Know India Programme (KIP)

(e) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs

4. Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): 30

(a). What is Dumping? Evaluate the remedial measures taken by Government of India vis-à-vis WTO provisions

regarding dumping.

(b) Comment on the relationship between credit availability and agricultural growth in India.

5. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words )

(a). What is the meaning and aim of social forestry ? What are the main weakness noticed in social forestry programme?

(b). Bring out the main objective of Rastriya Krishi Bima Yojana. The scheme is being implemented by which agency.

(c). Explain Mega Food park Scheme of Government of India.

6. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words ) : 2×15 = 30

(a) Explain the term Merit Goods

(b) What is Cheap Money?

(d) What is Hot Money?

(e). Explain the Concept Trickle Down Theory

(f) What is Stagflation?

(g) What is Engel’s Law?

(h) Meaning of CCIL

(i) What is Administered Price?

(j) What is Venture Capital?

(k) Explain the term Balance on Current Account

(I) What is Consolidated Fund?

(m) What is Budget Deficit?

(n) Explain the term Most Favored Nations

(0) Meaning of Capital- Output Ratio

7. Write about any two of the following (in about 150 words each): 15×2=30

(a) Impact of globalization on state system and its institutions

(b) SAARC Summit 2007

8. Write about the following (in about 20 words each): 2×5 = 10

(a) G-8 Summit 2007

(b) Hyde Act of 2006

(d) Operation Silence

(e) SAARC Human Rights Report 2006

9. Write about the following by expanding and explaining the objectives (in about 20 Words each): 2×5=10

(a) ICT4D

(b) BEMs

(d) BIMSTEC

(e) ECJ

10. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 30

(a). Explain the phenomenon of ozone depletion, its cause and effects . What efforts are needed to reduce it.

(b). what do you understanding by the term ‘biodiversity’? Examine the cause and consequence of degeneration of biodiversity?

11. Answer any two of the following (answer for each question should be in about 150 words) : 15×2=30

(a) What are the alternative fuels available for the transport sector? Discuss their characteristics, advantages ‘and disadvantages in their utilization.

(b) Explain the objectives and the current achievements of human genome project.

12. Answer all the five (in about 20 words each) : 2×5=10

(a) What is firewall ?

(b) What is mal ware ?

(i) MPEG (ii) ISP

(iii) HTML (iv) ASCII

(d) What is Root kit?

(e) What is computer architecture?

13. (a) In the year 2000 out of a total 1750 workers of a factory 1200 workers were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 2005 , the number of union workers increased to 1510 of which 1290 were men . On the other hand the number of non union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were
men. 8

(i) Put the above information in a proper table with title.

(ii) Calculate the increase in the percentage of the female workers belonging to the union in that five year period.

(b) The marks obtained by 20 students in a subject are given: 8
32, 62, 72, 46, 52, 74, 53, 42, 58, 61, 59, 46, 36, 76, 58, 77, 62, 48, 36, 39.

Form a frequency distribution table with class interval 10. Also Draw the Histogram.

14. (a) For the following distribution of statistics test grades, construct a frequency polygon and answer the following: 8

(i) How many test grades are greater than 87 ?

(ii) What percentage of test grades are greater than 83?

(iii) What percentage of test grades are lower than72? ‘

(iv) What percentage of test grades are between 72 and 79 (inclusive )

Test Grades:
73, 92, 57, 89, 70, 95, 75, 80, 47, 88, 47, 48, 64, 86, 79, 72, 71, 77, 93, 55, 75, 50, 53, 75, 85, 50, 82, 45, 40, 82,60, 89, 79, 65, 54, 93, 60, 83, 59

(b). Construct an appropriate diagram to show the following data of a university: 8

Course No. of Students

Engineering 440

Arts 220

Agriculture 120

Home Science 80

Economic 60

Total = 920

15. (a) What do you understand by 2

(i) Primary and secondary data

(ii) Data classification

(iii) Measures of central tendency

(iv) Characteristics of good average

(b) The mean wage of 100 laborers working in a factory running two shifts of 60 and 40 workers respectively is Rs. 38.

The mean wage of 60 labourers working in the morning shift is Rs 40. Find the mean wage of 40 Labourers working in the evening shift. 2

(c) The mean age of a group of 5 boys is 16 years. Another boy joins the group and then the mean age of the group becomes 18 years. How old is the newcomer? 2

(d) Arithmetic means of two completely different sets of values may be same. When extreme values are taken into consideration, the arithmetic mean is largely affected. Is it merit or demerit of arithmetic mean and give reasons for your statement? 2

IAS Papers : IAS Prelims Paper Economics (2008)

Ajit kumar singh — Fri, 05 Mar 2010 15:23:19 +0000

Part – 1

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) extends to the entire country
2. ASI covers all factories registered under Sections 2m (i) and 2m (ii) of the Factories Act, 1948.

Which of the following given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements:
1. Varsha Bima, the rainfall insurance scheme, is managed by the Agricultural Insurance Company of India Ltd (AICIL).
2. The scheme was introduced during the 2007 southwest monsoon period.

Which of the following given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

3. Tax on Banking Cash Transactions (withdrawals) over a certain threshold in a single day was introduced in the Union Budget of which year?
a. 2002 – 03
b. 2004 – 05
c. 2005 – 06
d. 2006 – 07

4. Who among the following has suggested migration to accrual accounting system from cash-based accounting system in India?
a. Y.V. Reddy
b. R.H. Patil
c. D.N. Ghosh
d. C. Rangarajan

5. In which of the following years was the tax revenue as a percentage of GDP, the lowest?
a. 2002 – 03
b. 2003 – 04
c. 2004 – 05
d. 2005 – 06

6. Which one of the following is the proportion of rain-fed agriculture to the net sown area in India?
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 72%

7. Consider the following statements about industrial relations on the basis of Economic Survey:
1. There was a constant decline in the number of strikes and lockouts during 2000 – 05 in India.
2. The maximum number of strikes and lockouts in the year 2006 were experienced by Kerala, followed by Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

8. If median and mode of a set of observations are 206 and 26, respectively, then what is the value of mean of the observations?
a. 16
b. 179
c. 184
d. 19

9. Lorenz curve enables one to study which of the following?
a. Averages
b. Dispersion
c. Correlation
d. Index numbers

10. Which one of the following is correct for a normal distribution?
a. Standard deviation > Mean deviation > Quartile deviation
b. Quartile deviation > Mean deviation > Standard deviation
c. Mean deviation > Standard deviation > Quartile deviation
d. Quartile deviation < Mean deviation > Standard deviation

11. Coefficient of correlation is independent of which of the following?
a. Change of origin only
b. Change of scale only
c. Change of origin and scale
d. None of the above

13. Which one of the following indices satisfies both time reversal and factor reversal tests?
a. Laspeyre’s index number
b. Fisher’s index number
c. Paasche’s index number
d. Kelly’s index number

14. Which one of the following index numbers is based on geometric mean?
a. Laspeyre’s index number
b. Fisher’s index number
c. Paasche’s index number
d. Bowley’s index number

15. What is a strategy which makes an all out effort to provide the masses of people in India access to basic facilities such as health education, clean drinking water etc., termed as?
a. Inclusive growth strategy
b. Exclusive growth strategy
c. Rapid growth strategy
d. Balanced growth strategy

16. Assertion (A): The monopolist never operates on the portion of the demand curve which is inelastic

Reason (R): When elasticity of demand is less than unity, MR is negative.
a. Both A anti R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

17. Assertion (A): The Revealed Preference Hypothesis excludes the study of Giffen Paradox.

Reason (R): Revealed Preference Hypothesis Considers only negative income elasticity of demand whereas Giffen Paradox Giffen Paradox relates to Positive elasticity of demand.
a. Both A anti R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

18. Assertion (A): Indifference curve for perfect substitute goods is a downward Sloping straight line.

Reason (R): For perfect substitute goods, MRS is falling.
a. Both A anti R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

19. Assertion (A): There is no excess capacity under monopolistic competition in the long run.

Reason (R): The demand curve under monopolistic competition is downward sloping.
a. Both A anti R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

20. Assertion (A): MRP curve lies below the VMP curve under imperfect competition.

Reason (R): Under imperfect competition MR < P.
a. Both A anti R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

21. Which among the following is not a committed expenditure of the Government of India?
a. Interest payments
b. Pay and allowances
c. Transfers to States and Union Territories
d. Loans and advances to States and Union Territories

22. Which region of India has the lowest Thermal Plant Load Factor (PLF) for thermal power generation in the year 2006 – 2007?
a. Northern
b. Western
c. North-Eastern
d. Southern

23. Which of the following are the goals of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
1. All children of 6 – 14 years age in school/EGS (Education Guarantee Scheme) Centre/bridge course by the year 2015.
2. Bridge all gender and social category gaps at primary stage by the year 2007 and at elementary education level by the year 2010.
3. Universal retention by the year 2020.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

24. Which of the following is/are not monitor able target(s) for the 11th Five-year Plan?
1. Accelerate growth rate of GDP to 10% by the end of the Plan and then maintain it in the I2t1 Five-Year Plan
2. Double per capita income by 2016-17
3. Create 20 million new work opportunities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3

25. Which one area of infrastructure is not included in Bharat Nirman Scheme (2005 – 09) ?
a. Irrigation
b. Rural roads
c. Rural health
d. Rural housing

26. Which of the following statements pertaining to the strategy to raise agricultural output during the 11th Five- Year Plan are correct?
1. Double the rate of growth of irrigated area.
2. Improve water management, rain water harvesting and watershed development.
3. Provide easy access to credit at affordable rates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

27. Which one of the following is not proposed in the approach paper to the 11th Five-Year Plan as important new social interventions?
a. Provide freedom and resources to select institutions so that they attain global standards by the year 2011-12
b. Grant old age pension to the widows, handicapped and deserted and separated women
c. Ensure adequate representation of women in elected bodies, State Legislatures, and the Parliament
d. Provide emergency obstetrics care facilities within 2 hours travel from every habitat.

28. During which of the following years, was annual average growth (at constant prices) of agriculture and allied sectors negative?
a. 2002 – 03
b. 2003 – 04
c. 2005 – 06
d. 2006 – 07

29. Consider the following statements
1. The Fifth Economic Census was conducted by CSO in the year 2007.
2. Intelligent Character Recognition (ICR) technology is being used for detailed processing of the data collected in Fifth Economic Census.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. Neither 1 nor 2
c. 1 only
d. Both 1 and 2

30. NSSO regularly collects rural retail prices on monthly basis from selected markets for compilation of Consumer Price Index Numbers. Which one of the following is the correct pair of samples collected for the purpose?
a. 403 villages and 39 urban centers
b. 503 villages and 49 urban centers
c. 603 villages and 59 urban centers
d. 703 villages and 69 urban centers

Part – 2

31. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. External Debt/GDP ratio has declined consistently after the year 2003.
b. External Debt/GDP ratio has fluctuated after the year 2003
c. External Debt/GDP ratio has increased after the year 2003
d. External Debt/GDp ratio has remained constant after the year 2003

32. In which of the following years, was the trade balance favourable to India?
a. 1970-71 and 1974-75
b. 1972-73 and 1976-77
c. 1972-73 and 1975-76
d. 1971-72 and 1976-77

33. Who was the Chairman of the Committee appointed in 2006 for setting out a roadmap towards fuller capital account convertibility
a. S.S. Tarapore
b. C. Rangarajan
c. M. Narasimharn
d. O.P. Sodhani

34. Which sector has attracted highest FDI inflows during the period from August 1991 to September 2006 (in % share)?
a. Services Sector
b. Electrical Equipments
c. Telecommimications
d. Transportation Industry

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List . I
(Terms of Trade)
A. Gross barter terms of trade
B. Income terms of trade
C. Single factoral terms of trade

List . II
(Explanation)
1. The ratio between the quantity of a country fs imports and exports
2. Index of export export prices quantity Index of import prices
3. Obtained by multiplying the commodity terms of trade by an index of productivity changes in domestic export industries
4. The ratio of a countryfs export price index to its import price index A B C
a. 3 4 1
b. 1 2 3
c. 3 2 1
d. 1 4 3

36. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The production possibility curve under increasing opportunity cost is :-
a. concave to origin
b. convex to the origin
c. a straight line parallel to the x-axis
d. a straight line parallel to the y-axis

37. Which of the following is not a non-tariff barrier?
a. Voluntary export restraint
b. Health and product standards
c. Environmental protection laws
d. Ad-valorem duties

38. In the Balance-of-Payment Account, the transfer payments are included in which one of the following?
a. Current account
b. Service account
c. Capital account
d. Official Reserves account

39. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. The distinction between expenditure switching and expenditure changing was propounded by H. G. Johnson.
b. The Absorption Approach to BOP was developed by Sydney Alexander.
c. The Elasticity Approach to BOP was associated with Stolper-Samuelson.
d. Stability condition in the foreign exchange market is known as Marshall-Lerner condition.

40. Which one of the following explains Balance-of-Payment adjustment mechanism under the gold standard?
a. Devaluation
b. Flexible exchange rates
c. Income-adjustment mechanism
d. Price-specie flow mechanism

41. Which of the following is the highest form of economic integration among different nations?
a. Custom Union
b. Free Trade Area
c. Economic Union
d. Conunon Market

42. Which one of the following best characterizes the Bretton Woods System of exchange rates?
a. Adjustable fixed exchange rates
b. Fixed exchange rates
c. Adjustable pegged exchange rates
d. Pegged exchange rates

43. Which of the following are the basic components of a typical IMF stabilization programme?
1. Liberalization of foreign exchange
2. Devaluation of the official exchange rate
3. A comprehensive anti-inflation programme
4. General opening-up of the economy to international commerce including foreign investment

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

44. Consider the following:
1. Kennedy Round of negotiations
2. Uruguay Round of negotiations
3. Tokyo Round of negotiations

Which is the correct chronological sequence of the above?
a. 1 . 2 – 3
b. 3 . 1 – 2
c. 1 – 3 . 2
d. 2 – 1 – 3

45. Which of the following is meant by growth in the context of growth and development?
a. Growth of gross national product in money terms
b. Growth of per capita income in money terms
c. growth of gross national product in real terms
d. Growth of per capita income in real terms

46. On which of the following grounds is increasing inequality justified in initial stages of development?
a. It puts greater incomes in the hands of those who have greater average propensity to consume
b. It puts greater incomes in the hands of those who have greater average propensity to save
c. It puts greater incomes in the hands of those who have greater marginal propensity to consume
d. It puts greater incomes in the hands of those who have greater marginal propensity to save

47. What is the correct sequence of the following approaches to development in terms of their chronological emergence?
1. Basic needs approach
2. Per capita income approach
3. Human Development Index Approach

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 – 2 – 3
b. 2 – 1 – 3
c. 2 – 3 – 1
d. 1 – 3 – 2

48. The Mahalanobis model was developed for which of the following plans?
a. First Five Year Plan
b. Second Five Year Plan
c. Third Five Year Plan
d. Fourth Five Year Plan

49. Which one of the following models explains the paradox pertaining to the rural-urban migration in the context of rising urban employment?
a. Lewis model
b. Todano model
c. Solow model
d. Mahalanobis model

50. Consider the following statements: Lewis’ model of development with unlimited supplies of labour will fail to work to the full extent if
1. there is no disguised unemployment in the traditional sector.
2. modern sector wages do not remain constant up to the point that surplus labour is exhausted.
3. investment in the modern sector is labour-saving.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I
A. Aggregate Growth Model
B. Multi-sector Growth Model
C. Harrod-Domar Growth Model
D. The False Paradigm Model

List-I
1. Western models as applied to the situation of developing countries
2. Analysis of growth in terms of interdependence of sectors
3. Deals with the entire economy by examining a set of important macro variables
4. For a specific growth rate and a given capital output ratio, the required rate of domestic investment is determined
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 4 3 1 2

52. Under which one of the following fundamental assumptions, Solow was able to show that steady state growth was possible and stable?
a. Flexible K/L ratio
b. Flexible S/Y ratio
c. Constant growth rate of population
d. Constant rate of technical change

53. Consider the following statements: According to the law of variable proportions total product is maximum when
1. marginal product becomes zero.
2. marginal product curve cuts average product curve from above.
3. slope of marginal product curve is zero.
4. tangent to the total product curve is parallel to the horizontal axis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3

54. Which one of the following statements is correct?
If the elasticity of substitution between two factors X and Y be zero, then it implies that for a given change in outputs,
a. X and Y will always change by the same proportion.
b. Y changes but X remains the same
c. X changes but Y remains the same.
d. X and Y both change necessarily by different proportion.

55. Which of the following is not correct in respect of Cobb- Douglas production function?
a. It was originally based on the empirical study of US manufacturing industry.
b. It is a linearly homogeneous production function, taking into account two factors, labour and capital, for the entire output of the manufacturing industry.
c. It tells us that out put depends upon labour and capital, and that part of output which cannot be explained by labour and capital, is attributed to the residual.
d. It is based on the assumption of operation of law of diminishing returns.

56. Income consumption line of the ‘Consumer Theory’ is analogous in ‘Production Theory’ to which one of the following?
a. Expansion path
b. Isoquant line
c. Ridge line
d. Isocost line

57. Suppose a fisherman has fishing net and a boat, He alone hunts fish in sea for which he has to pay no license fee etc. Fish, caught by him, wifi have which one of the following?
a. Zero economic cost of production as he makes no out-of-pocket payment to anybody and is working of his own
b. Negative economic cost of production because he enjoys fishing and has to make no payment
c. Positive cost of production due to his sacrificing the opportunity of working elsewhere and renting out fishing net and boat etc.
d. Infinite cost of production

58. Short-run marginal cost of a firm does not contain any element of which of the following?
a. Costs of raw materials
b. Salaries of the managerial staff
c. Wages of labour engaged on daily basis
d. Cost of fuel for operating machines engaged in production

59. Consider the following statements
1. The vertical distance from average cost (AC) curve to average variable cost (AVC) curve is average fixed cost (AFC).
2. AVC curve, AC curve and marginal cost (MC) curve are ‘U’ shaped.
3. AFC curve is horizontal to ‘X’ axis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

60. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of magnitude of minima in ascending order in marginal cost (MC) curve, average cost (AC) curve and average variable cost (AVC) curve?
a. MC, AVC, AC
b. AVC, AC, MC
c. MC, AC, AVC
d. AC, MC, AVC

Part – 3

61. Under perfect competition supply curve is identified as which one of the following?
a. Rising portion of marginal cost curve
b. Rising portion of average total cost curve
c. Rising portion of average variable cost curve
d. Portion of marginal cost above the average variable cost curve

62. Which one of the following statements is correct? A straight line demand curve (cutting both the axes) is elastic
a. throughout the length of the demand curve.
b. at the mid-point.
c. below the mid-point towards the demand axis.
d. above the mid-point towards the price axis.

63. Consider the following statements:
1. The shape of a unitary elastic demand curve a is rectangular hyperbola.
2. The shape of a perfectly elastic demand curve a is rectangular hyperbola.
3. Perfectly inelastic demand curve is parallel to the price axis.
4. Perfectly elastic demand curve is parallel to the quantity axis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

64. Which of the following is not a necessary condition of perfect competition?
a. Large number of firms in the industry producing homogeneous products
b. Free entry and free exit of firms
c. Need for incurring selling costs to attract consumers
d. Absence of artificial restrictions by the government

65. Consider the following statements Short run profit is maximum under perfect competition when
1. Second order condition is satisfied.
2. MC curve cuts MR curve from below.
3. MC curve cuts MR curve from above.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
8 of 13
c. 1 only
d. 2 only

66. In the kinked demand curve model, suppose MC curve shifts upward in the discontinuous range of the MR curve.
Which one of the following is correct? At equilibrium
a. price rises but quantity remains the same.
b. price and quantity both remain the same.
c. quantity rises but price remains the same.
d. price and quantity both rise.

67. Who developed the Time Preference Theory of Interest?
a. Irving Fisher
b. N. Senior
c. J. R. Hicks
d. J. M. Keynes

68. In the graph given above, what does the point B indicates?
a. Excess supply in the goods market and excess demand in the money market
b. Excess demand in the goods market and excess supply in the money market
c. Excess supply in both goods and money market
d. Excess demand in both goods and money market

69. Which one of the following is the most important determinant of speculative demand for money?
a. Income
b. Interest rate
c. Profits
d. Prices

70. Which one of the following equations was used by Fischer to explain the Quantity Theory of Money? (Symbols have their usual meanings)
a. MVPT
b. MP’=VT
c. MP’PT
d. PVMT

71. If Y is the total money income of the community, M is the supply and P is the price level, then how is Vy (the income velocity of money) defined as?
a. Vy = M/Y
b. Vy = Y/M
c. Vy = Y/(MP)
d. Vy = PY/M

72. When shall an increase in money supply have a small effect on nominal Gross Domestic Product?
a. If the velocity is decreasing
b. If the velocity is unchanged
c. If the velocity is increasing
d. If the Government’s spending is also increasing

73. What is the theory that opening a country to world markets gives an opportunity to utilize unemployed and underemployed resources known as?
a. Ricardian theory
b. Hecksher-Ohlin theory
c. Vent-for-surplus theory
d. Strategic trade theory

74. There are a number of banks in a market. The initial total primary deposit is Rs. 1,000. Every bank is required to maintain a 10% reserve legally. The transactions are completely made through cheque and no transaction is made in cash. What will be the total credit creation in the market?
a. Rs. 1,000
b. Rs. 5,000
c. Rs. 10,000
d. None of the above

75. Which one of the following is a qualitative credit control method?
a. Open market operations
b. Bank rate
c. Variable cash reserve ratio.
d. Moral suasion

76. 76. What kind of change is to be made in
(1) Cash reserve ratio, and (2) Bank rate, to control inflation ?
a. 1 should increase but 2 should decrease
b. 2 should increase but 1 should decrease
c. Both should increase
d. Both should decrease

77. Which one of the following pairs is called an open market operation?
a. Selling and buying of securities or bills by the central bank
b. Selling and buying of foreign exchange
c. Selling and buying of shares by the foreign institutional investors
d. Selling and buying of gold in the open market by commercial banks

78. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
a. Increase in the cash-reserve ratio
b. Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
c. Increase in the banking habit of the population
d. Increase in the population of the country

79. Match List – I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List – I
(Market Type)
A. Perfect competition
B. Monopoly
C. Monopolistic competition
D. Oligopoly

List – II
(Implication)
1. Collusion of firms
2. Excess capacity
3. Uniform price
4. Blocked entry

A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 3 4 2 1

80. Consider the following statement:
1. The number of firms is large both under perfect competition and monopolistic completion
2. There is freedom of entry and exit in both perfect competition and monopolistic Competition.
3. In both perfect competition and monopolistic competition, every firm is a price taker and quantity adjuster.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only

81. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Engel Curve for Giffen goods is
a. positively sloped
b. negatively sloped
c. vertical
d. horizontal

82. Which one of the following statements is correct?
In a production process with two factors, land and labour, if the marginal productivity of land is negative, then it is in
a. the stage I for land and stage II for labour.
b. the stage II for land and labour.
c. the stage I for land and stage III for labour.
d. the stage I for labour and stage III for land.

83. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List – I (Economist)
A. Pareto
B. Hicks-Kaldor
C. Bergson
D. Scitovosky

List II (Concept)
1. Compensation principle
2. Social Welfare Function
3. Social Optimum
4. Double Criterion Compensation

A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2 1 3 4

84. Which of the following statements about Pareto Optimum are correct?
1. It changes with changes in the distribution of income
2. At the Pareto Optimum, MRS in consumption = MRT in production.
3. It is not unique
4. It is obtained under imperfect competition.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3 only

85. Money demand (Md) is expressed as Md = f(Y) + ø(i) where f(Y) = transaction demand related to income, and ø(i) = speculative demand related to rate of interest. In a normal situation, which combination of the following restrictions on the slope of the component functions will hold good?
a. f ‘(Y ) > 0,ø ‘(i) > 0
b. f ‘(Y ) > 0,ø ‘(i) < 0
c. f ‘(Y ) < 0,ø ‘(i) < 0
d. f ‘(Y ) < 0,ø ‘(i) > 0

86. Which one of the following statements is correct? To derive disposable income from National Income, one has to
a. deduct income taxes and add transfer payments.
b. deduct income taxes and deduct transfer payments.
c. add income taxes and add transfer payments.
d. add income taxes and deduct transfer payments.

87. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List – I (Concept)
A. Liquidity trap
B. Demonstration effect
C. Permanent income hypothesis
D. Wealth effect

List – II (Economist)
1. M, Friedman
2. A.C. Pigou
3. J. Duesenberry
4. J.M. Keynes

A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 3 4 2

88. Given
% change in nominal GNP = 18
% change in population = 0.5
% change in price level 1.3

What is the approximate percentage change in real per capita GNP?
a. Zero
b. 0.5
c. 1.0
d. 1.3

89. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Value of output and value-added can be distinguished if we know
a. the value of intermediate inputs
b. the value of net indirect taxes
c. the value of imports
d. the value of consumption of fixed capital

90. There are 2 assets A and B in which one can invest his saving of Rs. 1,000/-, Assume that there is no risk and interest rate is 10% Asset A gives a return of Rs. 100/- in perpetuity. Asset B gives Rs. 200/- at the end of year 1 and Rs. 900/- at the end of the year 2. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. Present value of A and B are the same.
b. Present value of B is higher than that of A.
c. Present value of A is higher than that of B.
d. Information is inadequate to determine the present values of A and B.

Part – 4

91. Consider the following consumption and saving functions:
1. C = 200 + 0.8Y
2. S = 200 + 0.2Y
3. C = 150 + 0.8Y
4. S = -150 + 0.2Y

Which of the above are consistent pairs of functions?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4

92. In the context of the figure given above, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Investment is autonomous.
2. Saving is autonomous.
3. Investment is dependent on income.
4. Saving is dependent on income.

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 only
d. 1 only

93. Which of the following is not a characteristic of indicative planning?
a. The government sets targets for all sectors of the economy including those dominated by private enterprises
b. The emphasis is on consistency of the targets with each other
c. Given the consistency of targets with each other, the government directs the private enterprises to attain those targets
d. The government provides the right incentives to the private sector to attain the targets

94. The two gaps in a two-gap model refer to which of the following?
1. Revenue-expenditure gap
2. Saving-investment gap Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

95. Which one of the following statements is correct?
J.M. Keynes assumed that supply of money as a function of rate of interest is
a. perfectly elastic
b. highly elastic
c. unitary elastic
d. perfectly inelastic

96. Which of the following sectors has the largest percentage share in India’s total exports for the period April 2006 – October 2007?
a. Chemicals and related goods
b. Engineering goods
c. Gems and jewellery
d. Textiles including readymade garments

97. Consider the following agreements
1. ISLFTA (India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement)
2. SAFTA (South Asia Free Trade Area)
3. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement between India and Singapore)
4. SAPTA (South Asia Preferential Trade Area)

Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above agreements?
a. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
b. 4 – I – 2 – 3
c. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
d. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

98. The National Horticulture Mission (NHM) has aimed at doubling the horticultural production. For this, the target year is
a. 2010
b. 2011
c. 2012
d. 2015

99. What does infant mortality rate refer to?
a. The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 1000 live births
b. The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 100 live births
c. The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 100 live births
d. The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births

100. Which group of infrastructure industry has the highest gap in targets and achievements of production during the year 2006-07?
a. Finished steel
b. Crude Petroleum
c. Power
d. Fertilizers

101. Consider the following statements.
1. The coverage of integrated Child Development programme is limited and often the youngest children in the 0 – 3 year age group get left out of its ambit.
2. According to ICMR, at any given time, 7 – 15% of Indian children suffer from mental disorder.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a. 1 only
12 of 13
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

102. Why is demographic divided likely to be manifested in India in future?
a. Population in the age group between 8 – 15 years is likely to increase
b. Population of children below 7 years is likely to increase
c. Population in the age group of 15 -64 years is likely to increase
d. Population in the age group above 65 years is likely to increase

103. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Property of a Plan)
A. Feasibility
B. Consistency
C. Optimality

List-II (Model used)
1. Input-output model
2. Linear programming
3. Harrod-Domar type equation

A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 3 1 2
c. 2 3 1
d. 1 3 2

104. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List – I (Economist)
A. Ragner Nurkse
B. Paul N. Rosenstein-Rodan
C. Gunnar Myrdal
D. A.O. Hirschman

List – II (Concept/Theory)
1. Backwash effects
2. Theory of balanced growth
3. The big push theory
4. Theory of unbalanced growth

A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 4 1 3 2

105. Using Harrod-Domar growth equation, what is the rate of growth of a closed economy with C/Y = 3/4 and ÄK/ÄY = 3 where C = consumption, Y = output, K = capital?
a. 8.66%
b. 8.50%
c. 8.33%
d. 7.50%

106. Who among the following developed the wage-goods model?
a. M. Dobb
b. A.K.Sen
c. Vakil and Brahmananda
d. P. C. Mahalanobis

107. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List – I (Concept)
A. Vicious circle of poverty
B. Balanced growth
C. Big push

List – II (Explanation)
1. Massive increase in investment to initiate economic development in LDCs
2. A stagnant low level of investment
3. Simultaneous investment in all interrelated industries

A B C
a. 2 3 1
b. 1 2 3
c. 2 1 3
d. 1 3 2

108. Which one of the following statements is correct?
According to the classical economists, the existence of unemployment at any time is only of temporary nature and can be considered as
a. structural unemployment
b. cyclical unemployment
c. frictional unemployment
d. disguised unemployment

109. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Creeping inflation is a situation in which the rate at which price level rises is
a. very high
b. high
c. moderately high
d. slow

110. Which of the following groups are adversely affected by inflation?
1. Wage earners in the informal sector
2. Profit earners
3. Salary earners with salaries indexed to inflation
4. Pensioners with fixed pensions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
13 of 13
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 3

111. The shift in the SS curve to S’S’ is due to an imposition of a tax. Which of the following areas in the diagram shows excess burden of the tax?
a. ODD’
b. SDA
c. FGA
d. CAD’

112. Which one of the following is a source of non-tax revenue for governments?
a. Import duty on cars
b. Octroi at check points on roads
c. Entrance fee to museums
d. Excise duty on beverages

113. The Laffer Curve explains the relationship between which of the following?
a. Tax rates and tax revenue
b. Tax rates and employment
c. Tax rates and income
d. Tax rates and government expenditure

114. What does an increase in the ratio of revenue deficit to gross fiscal deficit indicate?
a. An increase in investment
b. An increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for revenue purposes
c. An increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for imports
d. An increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for leading

115. If in a year, the gross fiscal deficit of a government is Rs. 3,00,000 crores, revenue deficit is Rs. 1,50,000 crores and interest payments are Rs. 80,000 crores, what is the primary deficit of the government in the year?
a. Rs. 23,000 crores
b. Rs. 45,000 crores
c. Rs. 70,000 crores
d. Rs. 2,20,000 crores

116. What s the technical progress that increases the productivity of labour (L) proportionately more than teh productivity of capital (K) and results in an increase in L/K at constant relative factor prices, called?
a. Labour-saving technical progress
b. Neutral technical progress
c. Wage-saving technical progress
d. Capital-saving technical progress

117. Which of the following may not be considered as a merit of the opportunity cost theory over the Ricardiart theory of comparative cost?
a. It takes into account two or more factors of production instead of labour theory of value.
b. It takes into account the possibilities of trade under all the laws of production, instead of constant costs only as in the Ricardian theory
c. The theory provides a theoretical framework for general equilibrium approach
d. The theory considers the welfare point of view neglected by the Ricardian theory

118. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Heckscher – Ohlin theory states that the most important cause of trade is the difference in -
a. preferences
b. technology
c. magnitude
d. factor endowments

119. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Leontief Paradox makes
a. a critical analysis of Haberler’s theory of opportunity cost
b. an empirical study of factor-price equalization theory of Samuelson
c. an empirical testing of Mills’ theory of reciprocal demand
d. an empirical testing of Heckscher — Ohlin theory of international trade

120. What is the ratio between the price of a country’s export goods and price of its import goods known as?
a. Single factoral terms of trade
b. Double factoral terms of trade
c. Net barter terms of trade
d. Income terms of trade

IAS Papers : Sociology 2007 (Main)

Amit Rajput — Sun, 28 Feb 2010 11:18:09 +0000

SOCIOLOGY
Paper- I
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300
INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION A

1. Write short notes on any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20×3=60

(a) Sociology as a science of society

(b) Talcott Parson’s concept of social system

(d) Robert Merton’s View on Manifest and latent functions

2. Explain Karl Marks analysis of capitalistic mode of production and class struggle. What are the intellectual reactions to his view? 60

3. What is the subject-matter of sociology according to Max Weber? Which Major methods did he suggest for social science research? Illustrate your answer with his sociological contributions. 60

4. Elaborate Emile Durkheim’s analysis of the elementary forms of religion life and role of religion in society. How does he explain existence of religion in modern industrial society? 60

SECTION B

5. Write short notes on any three of the following in about 200 words each: 20×3=60

(a) Changing structure of family

(b) Role conflict and its resolution

(d) iaspapers.info/category/features" title='Read more about Features'>Features of Pre-Industrial Economic system.

6. Indicates social determinates of economic development. Discuss any one sociological perspective analyzing backwardness and poverty in the development society. 60

7. What are the structural elements of a social movement? State how a social movement comes to its end.

Illustrate your answer with example. 60

8. Explain the meaning and modes of political participation. What are the factors preventing people’s participation in Politics in India 60

Paper- II
SECTION-A

1. Write critical notes on any THREE of the following in not more than 200 words each: – 20×3=60

(a) Problem of Dowry

(b) Sanskritiation

(d) Problems of urban development

2. Discuss the role of various reform movements in India? 60

3. Describe the salient features of poverty alleviation programme. What modification would you suggest to make them more effective 60

4. Discuss the various problems of tribal communities in India and access the impact of tribal development efforts after independence. 60

SECTION-B

5. Write critical notes on any THREE of the following in not more than 200 words each: – 20×3=60

(a). Education and social mobility

(b). Regionalism

(c). Market economy and its social consequence

(d). Agrarian Unrest

6. Discuss the major problems of religions fundamentalism in contemporary India. Give suggestion to tackle these problems. 60

7. Discuss the social consequence of economic reforms like liberalization, privatization and globalization. 60

8. Discuss the impact of legislation and social economic changes on marriage and family institutions. Are these institutions weakening in contemporary India ? 60

IAS Papers : Public Administration 2003 (Main)

Ambuj Meher — Fri, 26 Feb 2010 15:49:11 +0000

PAPER I

SECTION A

1. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: (20 x 3 = 60)

(a) “The advent of the concept of “roll back of the state” since the nineteen eighties has been altering the role of public administration but certainly not diminishing its central place in human society.” Discuss

(b) “Weberian model of bureaucracy lacks empirical validity when applied to modern democratic administration.” Examine.

(c) “The new public administration (NPM) is an incarnation of a new model of public sector management in response of the challenge of liberalization, international competitiveness and technological changes”. Explain.

(d) ‘Citizen’s charter’ is the most important innovation in the context of promotion of customer-orientation of administration”. Discuss.

2. Give an account of major landmarks in the growth of the discipline of public administration in the 20th century. What are the possible trends in its growth in the first decades of 21st century? (60)

3. Account for the increasing corruption in administration. Suggest remedies to curb administrative corruption. (60)

4. What is morale? State its significance and suggest methods to foster and sustain morale in an organization. (60)

SECTION B

5. Answer any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: (20 x 3 = 60)

(a) “Organization today seems to invest in information and information systems, but their investments often do not seem to make sense”. Comment.

(b) “development administration has two important aspects viz. ‘the administration of development and the development of administration’. Explain.

(c) “training is practical education in any profession, not only to improve skills but also to develop attitudes and scheme of values necessary for effective performance.” Elaborate.

(d) “Legislative controls over finances are inadequate and incomplete.” Comment.

6. Examine the needs adn facets of administrative reforms in the fast changing scenario of the 21st century. What are the obstacles to administrative reforms? Give suggestion to overcome them. (60)

7. Comment on the role of public administration in policy making and its implementation. What are the other factors influencing the policy process? (60)

8. What are the various institutional devices available for the redressal of citizen’s grievances against the excess and malfunctioning of administration? How successful have they been (60).

PAPER II

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Candidates should attempt question 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each section. All questions carry equal marks.

SECTION – A

1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each: (3 x 20 = 60)

(a) “The Arthashastra is India’s oldest complete text on public administration”.

(b) “Though india emerged as a sovereign state after independence, the administrative system remained the same as was during the British period”.

(d) “district collector has increasingly become multi dimensional”.

2. “Looking back to our past experience, the fear that the emergency provisions can be misused have at times proved right and wrong at other times. Discuss with examples. (60)

3. (a) “Article 163 makes the governor the sole judge in matters in which he is required to act in his discretion.” Explain.

(b) “It is at the district level that the common man comes into direct contact with the administration.” Elucidate. (30 x 2 = 60)

4. “The steady expansion and the gradual decline of the public sector has been one of the most conspicuous development in post-independence india. Discuss this statement and suggest measures to arrest the decline of the public sector in india (60)

SECTION – B

5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each:

(a) “The size of the leviathan goes on expanding, despite the country’s recent commitment to downsizing or rightsizing”.

(b) “Questions represent a powerful technique of parliament control over expenditure”.

(c) ” A distinctive feature of the indian administration, since independence, has been the noticeable efforts under taken to make administrative system effectively reach and respond to citizen’s grievances.”

d. “Indian planning is highly centralized.”

6. “In-service training of officers belonging to higher civil services has been perhaps the most conspicuous development in indian administration.” Discuss with reference to raining designed for the indian administrative service officers.

7. (a) “Criminalization of politics in india has been extended to politicization of criminals. Comment.

(b) “NGOs are fast replacing the government in the implementation of a large number of programs.” Elucidate.

8. “Information technology, if properly used, can bring about sweeping changes in the nature of governance in india.” Discuss the current status and future possibilities about the use of information technology in the governance of india.

IAS Papers : Geography 1999 (Main)

Ambuj Meher — Sat, 23 Jan 2010 11:36:03 +0000

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 300
Candidates should attempt Question 1 and 2 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. All questions carry equal marks.

1. On the outline map of India provided, mark the following, and also write in your answer-book in not more than ten words, what you consider to be the most significant aspect of each of them :

(a) Farakka barrage

(b) Kavaratti

(d) Majuli riverain island

(e) Rajmahal hills

(f) Palghat gap

(g) Chhattisgarh plain

(h) Luni river

(i) Karwar

(j) Anandpur Sahib
OR
On the outline map of World provided, mark the following, and also write in your answer-book in not more than ten words, what you consider to be the most significant aspect of each of them :

(a) Greenwich

(b) Caribbean Sea

(d) West Bank

(e) Dakshin Gangotri

(f) Vatican City State

(g) Great Dividing Range

(h) Tai-pei

(i) Alaska

(j) Chagai hills

2. Write short notes on any three of the following in about 200 words each :

(a) Cs type of climate, as per Koeppen’s .classification

(b) Submarine canyons

(d) Primate city

SECTION A

3. Bring out the distinctions between the ‘continental drift’ theory and the ‘plate tectonics’ theory.

4. Make a comparative study of the tropical and temperate cyclones.

5. Discuss the relevance of ‘watershed’, as an ecosystem for the purpose of sustainable development.

SECTION B

6. Describe the sequence of major paradigm shifts in geo- graphic thought during the twentieth century.

7. Bring out the contrast between the internal structure of the pre-industrial and industrial cities.

8. How far do the patterns of economic development and those of human development correspond with each other in the world ? Illustrate your answer with examples.

iaspapers.info/category/geography" title='Read more about Geography'>Geography – 1999 (Main) (Paper – II)
Candidates should Questions 1and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. All questions carry equal marks. Illustrate your answers with suitable sketch-maps and diagrams.

SECTION A

1. Answer any three of the following in about 200 words each

(a) Evaluate the feasibility of the proposed Ganga-Cauveri drainage link.

(b) Discuss the role of institutional factors in the efficiency and productivity of agriculture in India.

(d) Bring out the present-day position of exploitation and processing of nuclear minerals in India.

2. Critically examine the problems and prospects of tribal areas in India.

3. Discuss the cropping patterns in different agricultural regions of India.

4. Examine the pattern of distribution and mode of exploitation of bauxite in India.

SECTION B

5. Answer any three of the following in about 200 words each

(a) Examine the importance of industrial estates in India.

(b) Discuss the geographical control of rural settlement pattern in India.

(d) Discuss the geopolitical importance of Indian Ocean area.

6. Bring out the trands in the development of fertilizer industry in India.

7. Discuss the concept of city region and referring to Indian cities, examine critically functional indicators used for delimiting the city region.

8. Discuss the role of languages in regional consciousness and national integration in India.

IAS Papers : IAS main History Paper 2004

Amit Rajput — Thu, 21 Jan 2010 12:28:15 +0000

Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks: 300
Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory and any three of the remaining questions selecting at ieast one question from each Section.
SECTION A
1. Mark any fifteen of the following places on the map supplied to you and write short descriptive notes on the places plotted by you on the map:       4 x 15 = 60
(i)      Achichhatra                             (xi) Mehrgarh
(ii)     Amaravati                               (xii) Paithan
(iii) Bhimbaitka                                 (xiii) Pataliputra
(iv) Champa                                      (xiv) Samath
(v)      Kalibangan                              (xv) Siddapura
(vi) Kanauj                                      (xvi) Somnath
(vii) Kapilvastu                                 (xvii) Tamralipti
(viii) Karle                                     (xviii) Taxila
(ix) Mahabalipuram                               (xix) Tripuri
(x)      Mathura                                 (xx) Udaigit
2. Describe the social life of the later Vedic people. How was it different from the Rig-Vedic life?                                                                  60
3. Explain the social aspects of Buddhism and account for its decline in India.      60
4. Give an account of the rise of the Chalukyas of Vatapi and their struggle with other rulers. Write a note on their patronage of arts.                           60
SECTION B
5. Write short essays in not more than 200 words each on any three of the following topics:                                                                20 x 3 = 60
(a) The ‘Corps of Forty’ and its relations with the Sultans.                    60
(b) The Token Currency System introduced by Muhammad Tughlaq.
(c) Was Din-i-Ilahi ‘a monument of Akbar’s folly’ ?
(d) The system of the collection of Chauth and Sardesh-mukhi by the Maratha rulers.
6. The Cholas are said to have established a strong and well organised administration with an element of self-government at the local level. Do you agree? Give reasons.                                                                         60
7. Discuss the growth of the Niguna School of Bhakti Movement emphasising the contribution of Kabir and Nanak to it.                                           60
8. In what ways were Aurangzeb’s Rajput and religious policies different from those of his predecessors? What were the consequences of the changes made by him?
60

PAPER – II
Time Allowed: Three Hours

Maximum Marks: 300
Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory and any three of
the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.
SECTION A        (MODERN INDIA)
1. Comment on any THREE of the following statements in about 200 words each:
20 x 3 = 60
(a) ‘The Treaty of Salbai (1782) was neither honourable to the iaspapers.info/category/english" title='Read more about English'>English nor
advantageous to their interests.’
(b) ‘The object of the Act (Regulating) was good, butsystem that it established was imperfect.’
(c) ‘Permanent Settlement disappointed manyexpectations and introduced there results that were not anticipated.’
(d) ‘We are therefore unable to advise the British Government that the power which at present resides in British hands should be handed over to two entirely separate sovereign States.’
2. Discuss the causes that led to the ‘economic drain’ in Bengal following the Battle of Plassey.                                                                      60
3. Examine the impact of British rule on Indian Society in the 19th Century.         60
4. Analyse Indian foreign policy of Non-alignment between 1947 and 1964.             60
SECTION B       (WORLD HISTORY)
5. Comment on any THREE of the following statements in about 200 words each:
20 x 3 = 60
(a) ‘Rousseau’s political philosophy contains the seedsof Socialism, Absolutism and Democracy.’
(b) ‘Napoleon was the child of the Revolution, but inmany ways he reversed the aims and principles of the movement from which he sprang’
(c) ‘To Bismarck the conclusion of the Treaty of May 20, 1882, was the
culmination of this system.’
(d) ‘The most important single factor ……. in the yearsfollowing 1919 was the French demand for security.
6. Review the background of the Chartist Movement. Despite its failure how had their demands been met in the succeeding years?                                  60
7. What were the weaknesses and difficulties of the Weimer Republic? How did Hitler succeed in establishing his dictatorship?                                 60
8. Analyse the factors for the collapse of Soviet Communism and Soviet Union during 1985-1991.                                                                60

IAS Papers : Public Administration 2000 (Main)

Ambuj Meher — Wed, 20 Jan 2010 11:53:38 +0000

Public Administration – 2000 (Main) (Paper – I)

SECTION ‘A’

Q. 1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) “Administrative efficiency is enhanced by keeping at a minimum the number of organizational levels through which a matter must pass before it is acted upon.” – (Herbert A. Simon) 20

(b) “A science of administration would be a body of for mal statements describing invariant relationships between measurable objects, units, or elements. Unquestionably, administrative research has produced definite precepts and hypotheses that are applicable to concrete situations.” – (Fritz Morstein Marx) 20

(c) … “a more thorough consideration leads to the understanding that communication, authority, specialisation and purpose are all aspects comprehended in coordination.”- (Chester I. Barnard) 20

(d) “Political environment conditions administrative system.” – (F. W Riggs) 20

Q. 2. “… The paradigms of public administration may be understood in terms of locus an focus.” - Golembiewski

In the light of the above statement describe the “five-paradigms” of Nicholas Henry about the evolution of the discipline of public administration. 60

Q. 3. “Information constitutes the life-blood of the functioning of organization.” In the light of this statement, explain the utility and importance of communication in decision-making. 60

Q. 4. What opportunities are available to All India Services and state services in career development ? Do you agree that days of generalists in modern administrative state are
numbered ? 60

SECTION `B’

Q. 5. Write short notes on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) Budget as an instrument of socio-economic transformation. 20

(b) Judicial control over administration in India and concept of judicial activism. 20

(b) Work study and work-measurement in Indian Administration. 20

Q.6. Give reasons for the failure of Government of India to introduce the performance programme budgetary technique in Union Ministries. What type of budgetary system is being currently practised in India and why ? 60

Q. 7. “The weakest aspect of Indian Administrative System is utter disregard of accountability.” Examine the current mechanism for enforcing accountability. What steps are necessary to make it more effective ? 60

Q. 8. Critically examine the approach and methodology adopted by Fred W. Riggs in his study of prismatic and sala societies. What is valid-content of Raj Krishna’s criticism of refraction ? 60

Public Administration – 2000 (Main) (Paper – II)

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Each question is printed both in Hindi and in iaspapers.info/category/english" title='Read more about English'>English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any THREE of the remaining questions selecting at least ONE question from each Section.
All questions carry equal marks.

SECTION ‘A’

Q. 1. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) “The period of British rule generated most of the structural and behavioural values of Indian Administration not by imitation but through interaction.”

(b) “Though the dictatorship of the Cabinet is a stark reality in modern times, it does not mean that the Cabinet is omnipotent.”

(d) “Indian Constitution confers vast legislative powers on the President.”

Q. 2. “Among several other problems, the Problem of financial relationship is perhaps the most complex one.” Explain in the context of recent developments in Union-State relations in India.

Q. 3. (a) “The leadership qualities of a civil servant are tested most during his tenure as the Cabinet Secretary – a dream-post for even-bureaucrat.- Elucidate.

(b) “All India Services play a crucial unifying role in the whole administrative system of the country.” Explain.

Q.4. Discuss the major problems of management and working of Public Sector Undertakings in India. Give suggestions in the light of liberalization policy to improve their performance.

SECTION ‘B’

Q. 5. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 200 words each :

(a) “Maintenance of law and order is a State subject but the Union Government can deploy armed forces in any State.”

(b) “Most administrative reforms have a political cost.”

(d) “A middle way- should be worked out to utilize the services of both generalists and specialists for the national development.”

Q. 6. Do you think that our administration is sensitive to public grievances ? Discuss the existing grievances redressal mechanism and give suggestions for enhancing its capabilities.

Q. 7. (a) “Reservation policy and its implementation has had some positive impact in relative terms on the socio-economic development of the SCs and STs but it is very meagre in absolute terms. Comment.

(b) “In the Chief Secretary, the State Government has an officer whose counterpart does not obtain in the Union Government.’ Elucidate.

Q. 8. Do you agree that globalization, liberalization and privatization policies are going to change the very fabric of Indian Administration ? What, according to you, are the major challenges before it in the 21st century ?

IAS Papers : IAS Prelims Paper Economics (2008)

Amit Rajput — Mon, 11 Jan 2010 11:31:11 +0000