The civil services got a major upliftment with the introduction of CSAT. Earlier the government of India had witnessed some irregularities with the pattern of preliminary examination as not all topics were given due attention and the overall paper was a sort of unfair treatment for applicants. This is the exact reason why UPSC and the Indian government came up with the CSAT.

The UPSC CSAT stands for the Civil Services Aptitude Test and will test the aptitude of the applicant unlike its previous counterpart which tests memory of a contender. It has changes in its General Studies paper. You will be surprised to know that nearly five million applicants submit an application for the preliminary civil services examination. Thus the competition is fierce, cut throat and not to mention aggressive which is why it is imperative for you to lay your hands on CSAT Study Material and make certain that you are prepared to embark on this journey.

Here are some tips to help you excel in your endeavor. Go through NCERT Books from class vi to x and always remain up to date by reading newspaper daily. Going through regular magazines which proffer significant insights into GK, current affairs, etc. will also be an added advantage. Make sure you are medically fit and that your personality is a superior one. It is also imperative to work on your communication skills and make certain that you are fully prepared for interview if you passed the written exams.

Prepare at least a year or more in advance as the preparation will surely consume some time keeping in eye the vast curriculum. Not only you have to excel in the prelim and the main written examination, but also have to perform excellently in the interview round as all the marks are combined and your result depends on the performance in each one of them. Also make sure that you put into practice CSAT Practice Tests.

A meticulously sought after planning and proper & timely guidance can enable an alert individual to clear the tough UPSC examinations. According to the UPSC aspirants, half of the battle is won right after selecting the right optionals for the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) selection examination. Provided that optionals in each IAS preliminary and IAS mains examination determine a candidate’s scoring pattern, questions asked in the final interview are based on the choice of optional subjects chosen. This makes the decision extremely difficult as well as critical.

There is a plethora of subjects to choose from, since students belong to varied streams of education, the subjects on offer include Science subjects that expands over Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology; Humanities subjects that expands over History, Political Science, Public Administration, Geography and Sociology and languages such as Hindi, English, Urdu and Pali. UPSC also offers subjects such as Anthropology, Psychology and Philosophy. Additionally, the more number of subjects make it more difficult for students to make choices in optionals.

Optional subjects are chosen on the basis of a number of parameters, on one hand there are optionals that are considered to be scoring where as there are others that are favored for their relevance to either General Studies papers or Current Affairs and essay questions whereas there are many who choose subjects for their defined set of topics asked and comparatively short type answers. Students feel that this bit of planning makes their choice of subject a success as there are combinations that have common IAS syllabus which reduces their workloads and improves their chances of scoring in civil services examination.

Likewise botany and zoology are two complementary optionals that have common syllabus as these prove to be advantageous for their future. The IAS syllabus talks about emerging issues such as genetically modified (GM) foods, cloning, biotechnology and environmental sensitization. However, students should also show their aptitude skills for the subject they choose as they require a fair degree of specialized knowledge. While preparing for the optional, it is advised to study first for the IAS mains paper and then prepare for IAS preliminary as this provides students an edge and then allow them to specialize in certain scoring areas.

The foremost thing you need to consider while looking for Civil Services like IAS is to make a wise selection of subjects for the Preliminary as well as for the Main Examinations. Often you will have choice of choosing the subjects you are familiar with. Make sure that you choose the subject you are comfortable with.
Always do an analytical study of previous years’ syllabus and question papers. Look for the pattern of the subject you have chosen. It is always better to seek advice from seniors and colleagues to keep confusion at bay at higher level of the exam.
The IAS exam preparation must be done in a perfect manner. Prepare for General Studies at the same time, while preparing for optional papers. You can adjust your timings for both; thus you will not be bored and be able to give more time to your studies.
Never, ever compromise with your optional subjects for General Studies as every question in optional subjects will get you 2.5 marks and the paper will be of 300 marks in total. Most importantly, the input and output ration is lots better in optional compared to General Studies.
The prominent thing in preparing for the IAS preliminary exams is to identify your weak points and work on them effectively.
Only way to be successful in the exam, in addition to rigorous hard work, is planned and systematic study. Prepare a schedule as per your convenience and stick to it.
It is essential to read newspapers and magazines regularly. Other than keeping you updated with current affairs, you will also get to know how facts are presented in a clear manner. Current issues are addressed in all Civil Services Exams, so it is a must that you are aware of recent happenings in not only India, but across the World.
Complete your entire syllabus at least a month prior to the main exam. Keep the syllabus handy so that you can tally it time and again to be sure that you are not wasting your precious time in studying topics which are not of much relevancy in the exam.
Consider the question papers of previous years and see the pattern of questions asked and point out which types of questions are often repeated.
It is best if you attempt previous years question papers. This will help you know your mistakes and weak points better. Additionally, it will help you in improving your speed and accuracy too.

In the end, no doubt, IAS exam is an important exam, but depression or nervousness will not take you anywhere. So have faith in yourself and keep on moving steadily. Remember, quality of time you put in your preparation is far important than the quantity of time.

1. ‘A’ and ‘B’are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist ‘C’ moves such that ACS is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse
The path followed by the cyclist is a circle
The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve
This type of motion is not possible
Correct Answer is (b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle

2. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in
Bihar
Chattisgarh
Jharkhand
Orissa
Correct Answer is (c) Jharkhand

3. Among the following commodities imported by India during the year 2000-01, which one was the highest in terms of Rupee value?
Edible oil
Fertilizers
Organic and inorganic chemicals
Pearls, precious and semi- precious stones
Correct Answer is (a) Edible oil

4. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements:
1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.
2.Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both land 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (a) Only 1

5. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
The presence of NaCl increase me rate of setting of Plaster of Paris
Gypsum is added to the cement to slowdown its rate of setting.
All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts
Barium and Strontium are found free in nature
Correct Answer is (d) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature

6. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
IPCL is India’s largest petrochemical company
RIL is the largest private sector company in India
MTNL is listed on NYSE
BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time
Correct Answer is (c) MTNL is listed on NYSE

7. Which amongst the following States has thehighest population density as per Census-2001 ?
Kerala
Madhya Pradesh
UttarPradesh
West Bengal
Correct Answer is (d) West Bengal

8. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitutionwas added by
First Amendment
Eighth amendment
Ninth Amendment
Forty Second Amendment
Correct Answer is (a) First Amendment

9. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in theyear 1946?
Rajendra Prasad
Jawaharlal Nehru
Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Rajagopalachari
Correct Answer is (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

10. The waterfall ‘Victoria’ is associated with theRiver
Amazon
Missouri
St. Lawrence
Zambeji
Correct Answer is (d) Zambeji

11. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha 1928)Was
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Mahatma Gandhi
Vithlbhai J. Patel
Mahadev Desai
Correct Answer is (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

12. The Kelkar proposals which were in the newsrecently were the
recommendations for reforms in the powersector
recommendations for tax reforms
guidelines for the privatization of publicsector undertakings
Guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution and the promotion of cng use
Correct Answer is (b) recommendations for tax reforms

Question No : 13

13. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two House ofIndian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission Repeal) Bill.
Which of/these statements is correct?
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1,2 and 3
Correct Answer is (d) 1,2 and 3

14. Life expectancy is highest in the world in
Canada
Germany
Japan
Norway
Correct Answer is (c) Japan

15. During the colonial period in India, what was the purpose of the Witley Commission?
To review the fitness of India for further political reforms
To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations
To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India
To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India
Correct Answer is (b) To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations

16. Octopus is
an arthropod
an echinoderm
a hemichordate
a mollusc
Correct Answer is (d) a mollusc

17. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body:
1. Swollen Lymph nodes
2. Sweating at night
3. Loss of memory
4. Loss of weight
Which of these are symptoms of AIDS?
l and 2
2,3 and 4
I,3and4
I,2,3and4
Correct Answer is (d) I,2,3and4

18. Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped on the Narmada river by
Pulakesin-I
Pulakesin-ll
Vikramaditya-1
Vikramaditya-11
Correct Answer is (b) Pulakesin-ll

19. Under which Article of the Indian constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes in the year 2002)?
Article 121
Article 122
Article 123
Article 124
Correct Answer is (c) Article 123

20. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a
) literateur
Musician
scientist
sportsperson
Correct Answer is (a) ) literateur

21. Consider the following statements:
1. The Maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in India is 49 per cent of the paid up capital.
2. Foreign Direct Investment upto 49 per cent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in India under the automatic route.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both l and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2

22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List-I cricketers) List II (country)
A.Barry Rchards 1.England
B. Tex Dexter 2.West Indies
C. Alan Davidson 3. South Africa
D. Charlie Griffith 4. New Zealand
5. Australia

A-3 B-2 C-5 D-1
A-5 B-1 C-4 D-2
A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2
A-5 B-2 C-4 D-1
Correct Answer is (c) A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2

23. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to
orientation
shape
size
spin
Correct Answer is (a) orientation

24. Consider the following statements:
1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans.
2.The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

25. Which among the following countries has the largest population?
Indonesia
Japan
Pakistan
Sudan
Correct Answer is (a) Indonesia

26. Assertion A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

27. Assertion A): During the year 2001-02, the value of India’s total exports declined, registering a negative growth of 2.17%
Reason R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, textiles and marine products.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

28. Assertion A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.
Reason R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (c) A is true but R’is false

29. Assertion A): The EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.
Reason R): GATT has played a significant role in the liberalisation of the economy.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

30. Assertion A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in 4 group.
Reason R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

31. Assertion A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain.
Reason R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

32. Assertion R) : ted when coal burns. The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.
Reason R) : The earth is not a perfect sphere.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

33. Assertion R): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.
Reason R) : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (c) A is true but R’is false

34. Assertion R) : The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason R) : The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

35. Assertion R) : Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason R) : The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest in very high when compared to that of temperate forests.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

36. Assertion R) : In 1916, Maulana Moha-mmad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative council.
Reason R) : The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

37. Assertion R) : Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an Emperor from the north-west frontier.
Reason R) :There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

38. Assertion R) : Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator re- ceive rainfall throughout theyear.
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

39. Assertion A) : Saluva Narasimha put anend to the old dynasty andassumed the royal title.
Reason R He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

40. Assertion A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a untitled Indian nation.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

41. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?
China
India
Indonesia
Sri Lanka
Correct Answer is (b) India

42. Consider the following statements:
1. In Mecedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority.
2. In Kosovo, Serbians are a majority.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

43. Israel has common borders with
Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
Turkey, Syia, Iraq and Yemen
Correct Answer is (a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

44. What is the correct sequence of the rivers-Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?
Godavari – Mahanadi – Narmada – Tapi
Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi
Narmada – Godavari – Tapi – Mahanadi
Narmada – Tapi – Godavari – Mahanadi
Correct Answer is (b) Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi

45. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by oneper cent, its mass remaining the same, the valueof ‘g’ on the earth’s surface would
increase by 0.5 %
increase by 2%
decrease by 0.5%
decrease by 2%
Correct Answer is (b) increase by 2

46. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
Under the leadership of Duplex, the Frenchoccupied Madras in 1746
Correct Answer is (a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499

47. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachiopposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Correct Answer is (d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachiopposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact

48. Consider the following statements :
1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%
2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the year 2001-2002.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

49. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world
India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world
India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
India ranks third in the world in coal production
Correct Answer is (b) India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world

50. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok sabha can have nominated members
There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister
A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Correct Answer is (c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister

51. With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment FDI) during the year 2001-02, consider the following statements:
1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in tea sector, the foreign ‘firm would have to disin-vest 33% of the equity in favour of an Indian partner within four years.
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, thesingle largest Indian shareholders should havea holding higher than 26%.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

52. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was
an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was ill-treated and expelled from the country
the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe
Correct Answer is (a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi

53. The battle of Dharmat was fought between
Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
Babur and Afghans
Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
Correct Answer is (c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh

54. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?
Kolkata
Kochi
Mumbai
Visakhapatnam
Correct Answer is (b) Kochi

55. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags different codes can be generated by waving
i) single flag in a different sequence of colours, or
ii) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or
iii) three flags in a different sequence of colours.
The maximum umber of codes that can be generated is
6
9
15
18
Correct Answer is (c) 15

56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List-I Organisation) List II (Location)
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee
C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune
Institute of National Integration 4 . Hyderabad
5. Kanpur

A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
A-5 B-1 C-4 D-3
A-3 B-4 C-5 D-2
A-5 B-4 C-2 D-3
Correct Answer is (d) A-5 B-4 C-2 D-3

57. Tim Montgomery set .a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in
Long Jump
110m Hurdle Race
100m Dash
High Jump
Correct Answer is (c) 100m Dash

58. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
Only l
Only 2
Both l and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2

59. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will
decrease in size
flatten into a disc-like shape
increase in size
maintain the same size and shape
Correct Answer is (c) increase in size

60. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative powers rests with
The President of India
The Chief Justice of India
The Parliament
The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Correct Answer is (c) The Parliament

No matter how much you may want one of these pre-employment types of exams to go away, it never will. And the best way to deal with an examination is to embrace it and give it your best shot. After all, careful preparation is required. And this type of pre-test prep can help you learn more about how to answer the various questions carefully and concisely; thus giving you the best chance of passing as possible.

A lot of people agree that the biggest issue you need to address when preparing for an exam is time to get some hands-on practice working with common test content and subject matter. And it is true that many of us simply don’t think we have the time to study and practice, but it’s important we make time. In fact, practice is critical to test success.

Plus, preparation shouldn’t be rushed, and there’s no use just scanning through a learning resource just before an exam. Rather, proper Civil Service test preparation and practice takes time and effort. And doing such but hard work can really pay off. As a result, Civil Service test practice can be an ideal method to score big.

In the end, you really do need to score big and pass if you want to get that new career. And in order to pass, you really do need to get some practice working with common test content as well as discovering general test structure.

So, if you’re serious about preparing for your particular examination, then getting some sort of Civil Service Test Practice is an excellent way to get ready for these types of examinations.

Among the thousands of civil services aspirants are three inmates of Tihar Prisons, including a murder convict and an IITian, who appeared in the examination this time.

Siddharth Singh Sidar from Chhattisgarh, who is undergoing imprisonment for cheating and once trained IAS aspirants, Amit Jha from Bihar who was held for kidnapping and Sandeep from Uttar Pradesh, serving life imprisonment in a murder case, undertook the civil services preliminary examination.

Sidar, an IITian from Kharagpur, and Jha both came to Delhi to prepare for civil services before they were jailed.

All three are lodged inside Jail No. 3 of the Tihar Prison.

The results are expected to be out in about 45 days.

In 2009, a convict in a rape case had appeared for the civil services examination for the first time and was set free by the court after he qualified.

The year 2011 will herald the arrival of new format of exam for the selection of Civil Servants in India. Civil Services Exam are the most respected competitive exam in India. Despite of so much noise about the rise of IITs and IIMs the top position of this exam is intact. The exam has seen occasional reforms but still it remained an exam for rote learners who were willing to mug up important facts. Furthermore, the coaching institutes had made it much easier for aspirants by providing them concise and accurate notes on academics and General Knowledge.

This change is definitely going to have an impact on the general profile of aspirants and more and more professional graduates and candidates of urban background would get attracted to the new format of the exam. As far as village or rural students are concerned they still have the edge of hard work which can help in winning any battle of life but without doubt they will have to change their strategy.

General Studies (Paper-1) aptitude+counting+number system etc.) from the general studies but also made the message from UPSC clear that aptitude testing (CSAT) has become very important to them. There were hardly any factual questions and the paper tested an aspirant on conceptual understanding of various topics of general studies.

It would not be incorrect to say that the paper tested a candidate on General Studies Aptitude. In General Studies, each correct answer fetched two marks and for an incorrect answer, there was a penalty of 0.67 (one-third of the marks allocated to each question) for an incorrect answer.

CSAT (Paper-2) — The first CSAT paper of UPSC was replete with challenges for one and all. The paper had a heavy bias towards reading comprehension. Close to 30 questions of reading comprehension were bilingual (Hindi and English) and around 10 questions were from reading comprehensions, which were in English language only. Most of the reading comprehension questions were inferential in nature and required a thorough reading of the passage. There were 8 questions of decision-making and exactly on the same pattern.

The 2011 Civil Services Preliminary Examinations, held for the first time in a changed format and nicknamed CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test), were held in 45 cities across the country on Sunday.

In the new exam format, the UPSC scrapped the optional subjects paper, which was a part of the preliminary exams along with the General Studies paper, and replaced it with General Studies-Paper 2, an aptitude test.

The second paper contained questions that test the candidate’s English comprehension, decision-making, problem solving, logical reasoning and inter-personal skills as well as general mental ability.

The General Studies-Paper 1 has been retained with minor changes to include more questions on topics such as environment, biodiversity and climate change, besides questions on Indian history, polity, governance and current affairs, and fewer questions on ancient Indian history.

The General Studies-Paper 1 contained 100 questions while Paper-2 contained 80. Both the papers held a total weightage of 200 marks.

At the UPSC Building examination hall on Shahjahan Road, many candidates said they were happy with the new format, which had questions that tested spontaneity as well as decision-making skills. However, others felt that there was an overdose of questions that tested the candidates’ ability to comprehend English.

1. Ganpati festival was started by—
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. The name ‘Indian National Congress’ was given by—
(A) S. N. Banerjee
(B) Feroz Shah Mehta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) M. G. Ranade

3. German Silver is the alloy combination of—
(A) Copper, Zinc and Nickel
(B) Copper, Aluminium and Nickel
(C) Chromium, Nickel and Mercury
(D) Copper, Lead and Chromium

4. Who is considered the ‘Guardian of public purse’ ?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Public Accounts Committee

5. Where is Nandapa Wild-life Sanctuary ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh

6. Which of the following committees on education is considered as the Magna Carta of
English Education in India ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Raleigh Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Hunter Commission

7. Who said—“Patriotisim is religion and religion is love for India” ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raj Narain Bose
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

8. The famous ‘Kirtistambha’ at Chittor was built by—
(A) Rana Pratap
(B) Rana Kumbha
(C) Rana Hammir
(D) Rana Sangram Singh

9. Gold coins in India were first introduced by—
(A) Sakas
(B) Parthians
(C) Indo-Greeks
(D) Kushans

10. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Light
(D) Intensity of light

11. Which of the following is known as ‘morning star’ ?
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn

12. All the following foods lack vitamin C, except—
(A) Rice
(B) Meat
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk

13. The fourth state of matter is—
(A) Super fluids
(B) Small particles suspended in the gas
(C) Liquid crystals
(D) Plasma

14. The leading producer of coffee in the world is—
(A) Turkey
(B) Brazil
(C) Venezuela
(D) Cuba

15. The Bhutia group of languages does not include—
(A) Ladakhi
(B) Tibetan
(C) Lepcha
(D) Sherpa

16. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh

17. Which of the following matchings is wrong ?
(A) Vijayawada — Narmada
(B) Lucknow — Gomti
(C) Badrinath — Alaknanda
(D) Ayodhya — Saryu

18. The first nuclear reactor of India was named as—
(A) Urvashi
(B) Rohini
(C) Kamini
(D) Apsara

19. Fundamental right to education has been brought through—
(A) 83rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(B) 86th Constitution (Amendment) Act
(C) 93rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(D) 96th Constitution (Amendment) Act

20. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) caters to—
(A) Early Child care and Education alone
(B) Early child care and Education with five other components
(C) Early Child care and Education with four other components
(D) Early Child care and three other components

21. Education Commission in independent India which focused on Secondary Education was chaired by—
(A) Dr. D. S. Kothari
(B) A. Lakshmiswami Mudaliar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Triguna Sen

22. Education Commission in pre-independence India which comprehensively covered all
aspects of education is known as—
(A) Saddler Commission
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Sargent Plan
(D) Abbot-Wood Report

23. Tarachand Committee provided recommendations on—
(A) Student’s Unrest
(B) Religious and Moral Education
(C) Vocationalisation of Education
(D) Secondary Education

24. State expenditure of 6 percent of G. D. P. was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission (1966)
(B) National Education Policy (1968)
(C) National Policy on Education (1986)
(D) Review Committee on NPE (1986)

25. The latest National Curriculum Framework by NCERT came into existence in—
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006

Answers :
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C)

Step 1: Resolve the typical period you study day-to-day

To do this simply look at the duration you studied during a week, next divide that by seven. If you allot five or 6 days every week for IAS prep in that case divide by five or 6 as the instance might be. You should have a precise or approximate figure like 10 hours or 10-12 hrs each day.

Step 2: Establish the number of topics to study daily

As you’re aware there are solely two papers in the Prelims but inside both of them there are so many to cover like Indian history, Physical geography, and Mental Ability and so forth. Now I’m certain you can’t examine each and every one of them in a single day even if you dedicate just a little period of time to each. Some people do that, although I don’t assume it is a clever idea to try for ‘ prepare all’ technique. Instead you should take up two or three topics at most each day, finish it completely or a minimum of a significant portion of it after which swap to different ones. This is necessary as studying a topic in whole will provide you with confidence in your preparation, will enable you to tackle all of the questions in a specific segment fully, and help to observe your progress extra thoroughly. Keep in mind, studying newspapers or watching information programmes shouldn’t be included within this.

Step 3: Divide time between the different subjects

Till last year while you had to prepare one elective subject, I used to dedicate about 70-80 % time to the optional and balance to some part of GS. Obviously I read newspapers each day and didn’t reckon it within this time break up. However now that the two papers are GS centered you might opt for one topic each from Paper 1 and a couple of or go along with both subjects from the same paper or one from Paper 1 or Paper 2 and 2 from Paper 2 or Paper 1 correspondingly. When you have accomplished this, break up the whole time that you just determined in Step 1 between the topics you may be learning on a daily basis.

How to do that? Whereas there isn’t any one best methodology of doing this a simple approach is to devote extra time to that subject or part that you simply discover as a) tougher b) carries extra weightage when it comes to variety of questions asked c) has lots of subjects to deal with, that is, is quite substantial d) rather new as you may have just began with it.

The precise time to devote to each matter will differ from person to person. Also you can be slightly adaptable in this. For example, when you have devoted 3 hours to study History day by day and have covered a pretty good part of it you would possibly reduce the time dedicated to it by 30 minutes or 1 hr and allot this to some other subject that you study alongside Modern History, possibly Decision Making.

Step 4: Follow your routine

Now that you’ve got a day by day plan ready, stick with it like Bees stick with Honey. In any long term work plan scheduling is vital however much more important is sticking to the pledge you made to yourself. For those who committed to clearing the Civil services, persist with it. And for this you committed to devote certain quantity of hours daily and then you committed to review 1, 2, or 3 topics each day till you covered the topic in entirety. Keep on with it. As I discussed in Step three above some flexibility is essential and the odd day off is OK however don’t make it a addiction or else you will note yourself lying to your self and the guarantees you made.