* Theory of Mechanics – S S Rattan
* Theory of Mechanism and Mechanics – Jagdish Lal.
* Mechanic of Solids – Popru
* Manufacturing Science – Ghosh and Malik
* Manufacturing Technology – P N Rao
* Production Manangement – R K Jain
* Principals of Manufacturing Material & Process – Campbeu
* Fundamentals of Classed Thermodynamics – Van Wylen
* Heat Transfer – Gupta Prakash
* Heat and Mass Transfer – R. Yadav
* Energy Conversion – Sukhalmoy
* Environmental Pollution Central Engineering C S Rao
* Surveying and Levelling – T P Kanetakar
* Heat Conversion – Arora & Kundwar
* Manufacturing Science – R K Jain
* Thermodynamics – R Yadav

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Known as )
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam Dancer
B. Birju maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarshini Govind 3 Mridangam Maestro
D. T V Gopalkrishanan 4. Kathak Dancer
Codes:

A B C D
a). 2 1 4 3
b). 3 1 4 2
c). 2 4 1 3
d). 3 4 1 2

2. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web ( WWW) ?
a). Edward Kasner b). Bill Gates
c). Tim Berner Lee d). Vinod Bham

3.Where are the headquarters of the organization of Islamic Conference ( OIC ) located?
a). Dubai b). Jeddah
c). Islamabad d). Ankara

4. Which one of the following is not a member of Shanghai Cooperation Organization?
a). Russia b). Kazakhistan
c). Ukrain d). Uzbekistan

5. Who among the following wrote the Book – Ayodhya : 6 December 1992 ?
a). Chandra shekar b). P V Narasimha Rao
c). Jasvant Singh d). Arun Shorie

6. Wangari Maathai , the noble Prize winner from Kenya is known for her contribution to which one of the following ?
a). Journalism b). International economics
c). Sustainable development d). Child Development

7. How is Gabriel Garcia well known as
a). Known as research in agriculture b). A renowned football coach
c). A great writer who won the noble prize for Literature d). Known for research in railway engineering

8. where was the first conference of the Pugwash conference on Science and World Affair held in the year 1957?
a). Minnowbrrok (USA ) b).Rhode Island ( USA )
c). Nova Scotia (Canada ) d). Nagasaki ( Japan )

9. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
a). Environmental Protection b). Civil Aviation
c). Journalism d). Olympic Games

10. Raghu Rai is well known for which one of the following areas?
a). Environment protection b). Olympic Games
c). Journalism d). Civil Aviation

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Eminent Person) List-II ( Known as )
A. Bhanu Bharti 1. Music composer
B. Mike Pandey 2. Poet and Literature
C. Mohd. Zahur Khayyam 3. Theatre Director
D. Vinda Karandikar 4. Wildlife Film maker
Codes:

A B C D
a). 1 4 3 2
b). 3 2 1 4
c). 1 2 3 4
d). 3 4 1 2

12. Who wrote the book- ‘ The story of the integration of Indian State’?
a). B N Rau b). C Rajagopalchari
c). Krishna Menon d). V P Menon

13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I ( Writer) List-II ( Book )
A. V S Naipaul 1. The Siege of Krishnapur
B. Salman Rushdie 2. In a free State
C. Paul Scott 3. Midnight children
D. J G Farrell 4. Staying on
Codes:

A B C D
a). 2 3 4 1
b). 4 1 2 3
c). 2 1 4 3
d). 4 3 2 1

14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Series of International Paper Size is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5 m2 ( approx)
2. The area of A4 size paper is 1/8th of the A0 size paper.
Which of the following given above is/are correct ?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

15. Which of the following countries signed the Tshwane Declaration in October ,2006?
a). China and South Africa b).India and South Africa
c). South Africa & Botswana d). Saudi Arabia and South Africa

16.Recently , the European Union and Other Six Countries including India Signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor ( ITER ) Project . Which one of the Following was not a signatory to it ?
a). Canada b). China
c). Japan d). USA

17. Which one of the following Himalayan Passes was reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate trade between India and China?
a). Chang La b). Jara La
c). Nathu La d). Shipki La

18. How is Steve Fossett known as ?
a). As a crocodile Hunter
b). For Completing the longest non stop flight around the globe
c). For Swimming across Atlantic Ocean
d). For climbing to Mt. Everest without any co climber

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Position/Organization)
A. Nancy Pelosi 1. WTO
B. Margret Chan 2. Speaker , US House of representatives
C. Paskal Lamy 3 WHO
D. Steve Ballmer 4. Microsoft
Codes:

A B C D
a). 2 1 3 4
b). 4 3 1 2
c). 2 3 1 4
d). 4 1 3 2

20. in which of the following cities is the Global Automotive research center being set up ?
a). Chennai b). Hyderabad
c). Pune d). Gurgaon

21. Consider the following statements :
1. Republic won majority in the US House of representative Election hold in the year 2006.
2. Republican Bobby Jindal , won a seat in US House of representatives for the second time.
Which of the following given above is/are correct ?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

22. What is the broad area in which the noble Prize winners for the year 2006 in Physiology or Medicine ,worked to get prize ?
a). Prevention of weakening due to aging b). Flow of genetic information
c). Immunology and disease resistance d). Adult stem cell research

23. Which one of the following countries is planning to construct a rival to the Panama Canal to link the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans?
a). Colombia b). Costa Rica
c). Guatemala d). Nicaragua

24. Consider the following statements :
1. In the Year 2006 , India Successfully tested a full fledged cryogenic stage in rocketry.
2. After USA , Russia and China , India is the only country to have acquired the capability for use of cryogenic stage in rocketry.
Which of the following given above is/are correct ?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

25. With the reference to the international meeting held in the year 2006, Which of the following Pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. NAM Summit : Havana
2. APEC Meeting : Bangkok
3. EU India Summit : Helsinki
4. UN Climate change conference : Geneva
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a). 1 only b). 1 and 3 only
c). 1,2 and 3 d). 2,3 and 4

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Company)
A. Vishwapati Trivedi 1. Essar Group
B. Tulsi R Tanti 2. Info Edge India ( which runs naukri.com)
C. Shashi Ruia 3 Indian Airline
D. S Bikachandani 4. Suzon Energy
Codes:

A B C D
a). 2 4 1 3
b). 3 1 4 2
c). 2 1 4 3
d). 3 4 1 2

27. consider the following statements :
1). North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC ) is the name of the new organization which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organization ( NATO ).
2). The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO when it was formed in the year 1949.
Which of the following given above is/are correct ?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

28. For which one of the following books did Kiran Desai win the Man Boker Prize 2006.
a). The Secret River b). In the country of Men
c). The inheritance of Loss c). Mother’s Milk

29. Who among of the following is Chile’s first women president ?
a). D Ortega b). M Bachelet
c). E Morales d). A Garcia

30. What was the purpose of the Operation Sukoon launched by Governement of India ?
a). Helping Indonesia in its efforts to rehabilitate the victims of earthquake in that country.
b). Evacuation the India national from Lebanon during the conflict in the middle east.
c). Assisting United Nations in its to help the Civil war victims in the Darfur region of North Africa.
d). Providing a relief package to farmers after a spate of suicides by other farmers in Andhra Pradesh.

31. Which one of the following pairs of countries joined the European Union 2007 ?
a). Bulgaria and Romania b). Bulgaria and Belgium
c). Romania and Slovenia d). Hungary and Crotia

32. Which one of the following organizations won the CSIR Award for Science and Technology ( S & T ) Innovations for Rural Development , 2006.
a). CLRI b). IARI
c). NDDB d). NDRI

33. Which of the following countries recently upgraded its defense agency to a full defense ministery ?
a). Italy b). Japan
c). Switzerland d). Poland

34. Consider the following statements:
a). China has the observer’s status at the South Asean for Regional corporation.
b). India has the observer’s status at the Shanghai corporation Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only .
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 or 2

35. In the latter half of the year 2006, in which one of the following countries did a military coup take place?
a). Caobodia b). Laos
c). Thailand d). Vietnam

36. Near the end of the year 2006 , which one of the following countries was suspended from the commonwealth after a military coup?
a). Kenya b). Myanmar
c). Fiji d). Tanjania

37. Who was Leander Paes’s partner when he won Double Final in the US open Tennis Tournament?
a). Max Mirnyi b). Martin Damm
c). Bob Bryan d). Mike Brayan

38. Which of the following cities has been the venue of the Asean Games for the maximum number of times from the years 1951 to the year 2006 ?
a). Delhi b). Bangkok
b). Tokyo d). Beijing

39. Who among of the following bowlers have taken more than 500 wickets in Test Crickets?
1. Wasim Akram 2. Richard Hadlee
3. Glen McGrath 4. Courtney Walse
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a). 1 and 2 only b). 3 and 4 only
c). 1, 2 , 3 only c). 1 , 2 , 3 , 4

40. Parimarajan Negi excelled in which one of the following games ?
a). Billiards b). Swimming
c). Chess d). Weightlifting

41. Which one of the following Pairs is not correctly matched?
a). T S Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
b). K C pant : Chairman , Tenth Finance Commissioner of India
c). A M Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
d). R C Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India

42. Consider the following statements :
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 Contemplates to establish a judicial council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the chief Justice of India, High court Chief Justice and judges.
2. Under the protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition before a 1st class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

43. Consider the Following Statements:
1. The Mode of removal of a judge of a high court in India is same as that of removal of a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court can not plead or act in any Court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

44. Which one of the following is the correct Chronological order of the Formation of the following as full states of Indian Union?
a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
b) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal pradesh
c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland- Arunachal Pradesh
d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana

45. Who among of the following have been the Union Finance Minister of India ?
1. V P Singh 2. R Venkataraman
3. Y B Charan 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a). 1 , 2 and 3 only b). 1 , 3 and 4 only
c). 2 and 4 only d). 1, 2 , 3 and 4

46.
Assertion ( A). the Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok sabha
and The Rajya Sabha

Reasons ( R ) : The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of
the Unioin.

47.Who is the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha ?
a). Hukam Singh b). G V Mavalankar
c). K M Munshi d). U N Dhebar

48.
Consider the following statements:
1. Jawahar Nehru was in his fourth Term as the Prime minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawahar Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a member of parliament.
3. The First non congress Prime minister of India assumed the office in the year 1977.
Which of the following statements given above is are correct.
a). 1 and 2 only b). 3 Only
c). 1 only d). 1 and 3

49. Consider the following statements:
1. The national wide Scheme of the National Child Labour Projects ( NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2.Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labour
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

50.
Consider the following statement in respect of financial emergency under the article 360 of the constitution of India .
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both house of Parliament.

2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for president of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affair of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

51.Which of the constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Council of Ministers at the center and in a state must not exceed 15 percent of the total numbers in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the legislative Assembly of that state , respectively ?
a). 91st b). 93rd
c). 95th d). 97th

52.Consider the following statements :
1. The chairman of the committee on public Accounts is appointed by the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The committee on Public Accounts Comprise Members of the Lok Sabha , Members of Rajya Sabha, and a few eminent persons of the industry and Trade.
Which of the statements given above/are correct.
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

53. Which one of the following was associated with Acharya Vinoba Bhave,s Bhoodan Movement at the
beginning of the movement?
a). Udayagiri b). Rapur
c). Pochampalli d). Venkatagiri

54. Where is the famous Vijaya Vitala temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical noted located?
a) Belur b). Bhadrachalam
c). Hampi d). Srirangam

55. Assertion (A): According to the wavell Plan, the Number of Hindu and Muslim members in the executive council were to be equal.

Reason ( R) : Wavell thought that this arrangement would have avoided the partition of India.

56. Which one of the Following aroused a wave of popular indignation that led to the massacre by the British at Jaliawala Bagh?
a). The Arm Act b). The Public Safety Act
c). The Rowlatt Act d). The Vernacular Press Act

57.At which one of the following places did mahatma Gandhi first start his satyagraha in India?
a). Ahemdabad b). Bardoli
c). Champaran d). Kheda

58. Who Among the following started the newspaper Shome Prakash?
a). Dayanand Saraswati b). Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
c). Raja Rammohan Roy d). Surendranath Banerjee

59. The ruler of which on of the following states was removed from power by the British on the pretext of misgovernance.
a). Awadh b). Jhansi
c). Nagpur d). Satara

60. Who Among the following Europeans were the last to come to pre independence India Traders ?
a). Dutch b). iaspapers.info/category/english" title='Read more about English'>English
c). French d). Potuguese

61. Consider the following statement :
1. Robert Clive was the first Governor General of Bengal
2. William Bentic was the first Governor general of India
Which of the statement given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only b). 2 only
c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 or 2

62. Which one of the Following was the first fort Constructed by the British in India ?
a). Fort William b). Fort St. George
c). Fort St. David d). Fort St. Angelo

63. The Song ‘ Amar Sonar Bangla’ written during the Swadeshi Movement of India inspired the Liberation Struggle of Bangladesh and was adopted as the National Anthem of Bangladesh. Who wrote this song?
a) Rajni Kanta Sen b). Dwijendralal Ray
c). Mukunda Das d). Rabindra Nath tagore

64.The First factory Act restricting the working hours of women and children and authorizing local governments to make necessary rules was adopted during whose time?
a) Lord Lytton b). Lord Bentinck
c). Lord Ripon d). Lord canning

65.Who among the following wrote the book Bahubivah?
a). Raja Rammohan Roy b). Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
c). Pandita Rambai d). Rabindranath Tagore

66. In which one of the following districts , have been reserves of diamond-bearing kimberlite been discovered in the recent past.
a). Hoshangabad b). Raipur
c). Sambalpur d). Warangal

67. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
a). Buenous Aires b). Hawaiian Islands
b). Rio de Janeiro d). Valletta

68. With reference to steel industry in India in the recent times , considering the following statements :
1. Vizag Steel Plant ( RINL ) has been declared Mini Ratna.
2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed.
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

69. The Stilwell Road , built in 1940s , which has recently in news connects with the following ?
a). Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar via Bangladesh.
b). Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar.
c). Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibat via Bhutan
d). Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand via Myanmar .

70. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip ?
a). Simlipal National Park b). Periyar Wildlife Sanchary
c). Manjira Wildlife Sanchary d). Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park

71. Where are Shevarory Hills located ?
a) .Andhra Pradesh b). Karnataka
c). Kerala d). Tamilnadu

72. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of production ( in million tones ) of the given food grains in India ?
a). Wheat – Rice – Pulses – Coarse Cereals b). Rice – Wheat – Pulse- Coarse Cereals
c). Wheat – Rice – Coarse cereals – pulse d). Rice – Wheat – Coarse Cereals – Pulse

73. What was the average distance ( apporoximate ) between the Sun and the earth ?
a). 70 * 105 Km b). 70 * 105 Km
c). 70 * 105 Km d). 70 * 105 Km

74. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the others cities at any given instant ?
a). London ( UK ) b). Lisbon ( Portugal )
c). Accra ( Ghana ) d). Addis Ababa ( Ethiopia )

75. Assertion ( A ) : River Kalinadi is an east following river in the Southern Part of India.
Reason ( R ) : The Deccan Plateau is higher along its western edge and gently slopes towards the Bay of Bengal in the East.

76. Assertion ( A ) : There are no tea plantations in any African country.

Reason ( R ) : Tea plants need fertile soil with high humus.

77. Which of the following National Highways passes through Maharastra , Chattisgarh and Orissa.
a). NH-4 b). NH-5
c). NH-6 c). NH-7

78. Consider the following statements :
1.Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
2.Majhgawan is known for its manganese deposits.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

79. Which one of the following States of India has the lowest density of population?
a). Himanchal Pradesh b). Meghalaya
c). Arunachal Pradesh d). Sikkim

80.
Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given the Lists :
List-I ( City ) List II ( River )
A. Bankong 1. Irrawaddy
B. Phnom-Penh 2. Mekong
C. Hanoi 3. Menam ( Chao Phraya )
D. Yangon 4. Red River
Codes :

A B C D
a). 3 2 4 1
b). 4 1 3 2
c). 3 1 4 2
d). 4 2 3 1

81. Consider the following statements:
1. Either of the two belts over the ocean at about 300 to 350 N and S Latitudes is known as Horse Latitude.
2. Horse Latitude are low pressure Belt.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2.

82. Which one among of the flowing rivers originates at Amarkantak ?
a). Damodar b). Mahanadi
c). Narmada d). Tapi

83. Which one among the following rivers is the longest ?
a). Amazon b). Amur
c). Congo d). Lena

84. Which one among the following major cities is most eastwards located ?
a). Hyderabad b). Bhopal
c). Lucknow d). Rosewood

85. Out of the Southern States : Andhra Pradesh , Karnataka , Kerala and Tamil Nadu , which shares boundaries with maximum number of Indian state ?
a). Andhra Pradesh only b). Karnataka Only
c). Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka d). Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala

86.
Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given the Lists :
List-I ( Alumni Company ) List II ( Location )
A. BALCO 1. Hirakunda
B. HINDALCO 2. Korba
C. Indian Alumni Company 3. Koraput
D. NALCO 4. Renukoot
Codes :

A B C D
a). 3 1 4 2
b). 2 4 1 3
c). 3 4 1 2
d). 2 1 4 3

87. Which of the following is located in the Bastar region ?
a). Bandhvagarh National Park b). Dundeli Sanchary
c). Rajaji National Park d). Indravati National Park

88. Through which one of the following Straits, does a tunnel connect the united Kingdom and France:
a). Davis Strait b). Denmark Strait
b). Strait of Dover d). Strait of Gibraltar

89. Consider the following statements:
1. The annul range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean than that in the Atlantic Ocean.
2. The Annual range of temperature is greater in the Northern Hemisphere than that in the Southern Hemi sphere.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

90. The Largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which one of the following countries?
a). Australia b). Cuba
c). Ghana d). Philippines

91. In which state is the Guru Shikhar Peak located :
a). Rajasthan b) Gujarat
b). Madhya Pradesh d). Maharastra

92. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given the Lists :
List-I ( Town ) List II ( River nearer to lists )
A. Betul 1. Indravati
B. Jagdalpur 2. Narmada
C. Jabalpur 3. Shipra
D. Ujjain 4. Tapti
Codes :

A B C D
a). 1 4 2 3
b). 4 1 2 3
c). 4 1 2 3
d). 1 4 3 2

93. Dalbergia Species is associated with which one of the following :
a). Cashew nut b). Coffee
c). Tea d). Rosewood

94. Consider the following statements :
1. In India , Red Panda is naturally found in the western Himalayan only.
2. In India , Slow Loris Lives in the dense forest of the North East.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

95. Shahgarh area in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan was in news in the year 2006 because of which one of the following ?
a). Finding high quality gas reserves b). Finding uranium deposit
c). Finding zinc deposit d). Installation of wind power units

96. Basel II relates to which one of the following?
a). International standard for safety in civil aviation
b). Measure against cyber crimes
c). Measure against drug abuse by sport person
d). International Standards for measuring the adequacy of Bank’s capital.

97. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross domestic product of India?
a). Service – Industry – Agriculture b). Service – Agriculture – Industry
c). industry – service – Agriculture d). Industry – Agriculture – Service

98. Consider the following statements:
1. The repo rate is the rate which other banks borrow from reserve Bank of India.
2. A Value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country implies that there is perfectly equal income for every one in its populations.
Which of the following statements given above is / are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 or 2 c). Neither 1 or 2

99.The National Housing Bank was set up in India as a wholly – owned subsidiary of which one of the following?
a). Sate Bank of India b). Reserve Bank of India
c). ICICI Bank c). Life insurance Corporation of India

100.Tarapur committee was associated with which one of the following?
a). Special Economic Zone b). Fuller capital Account convertibility
c). Foreign exchange reserves d). Effect of oil prices on the Indian Economy

101.Who among of the following served as the chief economist of the International Monetary Fund?
a). Ashok Lahiri b). Sumantra Ghosal
c). Saumitra Chaudhuri d). Raghuram Rajan

102.Participatory Notes ( PNs) are associated with which one the following ?
a). consolidate fund of India b). Foreign Institutional Investors
c).United Nations Development Programme d). Kyoto protocol.

103. Which one of the following is another name of RDX ?
a). Cyanohydrin b). Dextran
c). Cyclohexane d). Cyclonite

104. Which one of the following non metal is not a poor conductor of electricity?
a). Sulphur b). Selenium
c). Bromide d). Phosphorus

105. Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following ?
a). Cardiology b). Influenza Virus
c). HIV/AIDS d). Alzheimer

106. Consider the following statements :
1. If magenta and yellow coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have red colour.
2. If cyan and magenta coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have blue colure.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

107. Consider the following statements:
1. A flute of smaller length waves of lower frequency.
2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of longitudinal elastic waves only.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

108. Four wires of same material and of dimensions as under are stretched by a load of same magnitude separately. Which one of them will be elongated maximum.
a). Wire of 1m length and 2 mm diameter b). Wire of 2m length and 2 mm diameter
c). Wire of 3m length and 1.5 mm diameter d). Wire of 1m length and 1 mm diameter

109.Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plants becomes modified into a pitcher?
a). Stem b). Leaf
c). Stipule d). Petiole

110. Assertion ( A ) : A jet aircraft moving at Mach Number equal to 1 travels faster at an altitude of 15 km than
while moving at Mack Number equal to 1 near the sea level.

Reason ( R ) : The velocity of sounds on the temperature of surrounding medium.

111. In the Human Body , which structure is the appendix attached to ?
a). The large intestine b) The Small intestine
c). the gall Bladder d). The Stomach

112. Which one of the following types of glass can cut off ultraviolet rays ?
a). Soda Glass b). Pyrex Glass
c). Jena Glass d). Crookes Glass

113. In the Human Body which on the following hormones regulates blood calcium and Phosphate?
a). Glucagon b). Growth Hormone
c). Parathyroid Hormone d). Thyroxin

114. How do most insects respire
a). Through skin b). Through gills
c). by Lungs d). By Tracheal system

115. Which one of the following parts of Human brain is regulating center for swallowing and vomiting?
a). Cerebellum b). Cerebrum
c). Medulla Oblongata d). Pons

116.Production of which one of the following is a function of the Liver.
a). Lipase b). Urea
c). Mucus d). Hydrochloric acid

117. Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the Human system?
a). Trypsin b). Gastrin
c). Ptyalin d). Pepsin

118. Which of the following light types of light are strongly absorbed by plants :
a). Violet and Orange b). Blue and Red
c). Indigo and Yellow d). Yellow and Violet

119. In Human Being , normally in which one of the following parts , does the sperm fertilize the ovum ?
a). Cervix b). Fallopian Tube
c). Lower Part of Uterus d). Upper Part of Uterus

120. Three identical vessels A , B and C are filled with water , mercury and Kerosene respectively up to an equal height. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the three taps opened simultaneously , then which vessel is emptied first?
a) . Vessel B
b). All the vessels A , B and C will be emptied simultaneously
c). Vessel A
d). Vessel C

121. Which one of the following is called Philosopher’s wool ?
a). Zinc Bromide b). Zinc Nitrate
c). Zinc Oxide d). Zinc Choloride

122. Which one of the following does not contain silver ?
a). Horn Silver b). German Silver
c). Ruby Silver d)., Lunar Caustic

123. Which of the following types is used by computed tomography employed for visualization of the internal structure of human body ?
a). X Ray b). South waves
c). Magnetic resonance d). Radioisotopes

124.Which on the following is the correct sequence in order of decreasing length of the three structural parts given below of small intestine in the human body?
a). Jejunum – Duodenum – ileum b). ileum – Duodenum – Jejunum
c). jejunum – Ileum – Duodenum d). ileum – Jejunum – Duodenum

125. Consider the following statements:
1. In the November 2006, DRDO successfully conducted the interception test using Prithvi II missile.
2. Prithvi II is a surface to surface missile and can be deployed to guard the metros against air attack .
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

126. NASA’ s Deep impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
a). Halley’s comet b). Hale-Bopp
c). Hyakutake d). Temple 1

127. MCA -21 is a major initiate taken up by the Government of India in which one of the following areas?
a). Foreign Direct investment in India b). Attracting international tourism
c). e-governance d). Modernization of Airports

128.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II ( Known as )
A. John C Mather 1. Co-founder of Microsoft
B. Michael Griffin 2. space walker
C. Paul G Allen 3. Administrator of NASA
D. Piers Sellers 4. Nobel prize winner , 2006 in Physics
Codes:

A B C D
a). 4 1 3 2
b). 2 3 1 4
c). 4 3 1 2
d). 2 1 3 4

129. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a). Cosmic Background : Satellite Programme Explorer ( COBE )
b). Falcon : Under sea cable system
c). Discovery : Space shuttle
d). Atlantis : Space station

130. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Company) List-II ( Major Area/product)
A. Chevron 1. Wind Energy
B. AT&T 2. Oil
C. AMD 3. Telephone ,Internet
D. Enercon GmbH 4. Micro-processor
Codes:
A B C D
a). 2 1 4 3
b). 4 3 2 1
c). 2 3 4 1
d). 4 1 2 3

131. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
a). Williams Dickson : Motion Picture Film
b). Charles Babbage : Programmable Computor
c). Nicholas Stern : Construction Technology
d). Brian Greene : String Theory

132. What is the Galileo project which has been in news recently ?
a). An intercountry programme of missile shield developed by United State of America.
b). A Project developed by India with Assistance from Canada.
c). An Environmental Protection being developed by Japan.
d). A Multi-satellite navigation project being developed by the European Union.

136.
Amit has five friends: 3 Girls and 2 boys . Amit’s wife is also has five friends: 3 boys and 2 girls. In How many maximum number of different ways can they invite 2 boys and two girls such that two of them are Amit’s friends and two are his wife’s?
a). 24 b). 38
c). 46 d). 48

137.
Five balls of different colours are to be placed in the three different boxes such that any ox contains at least one ball. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
a). 90 b). 120
c). 150 d). 180

138.
All six letters of the name SACHIN are arranged to form different words without repeating any letter in any one word. The words so formed are then arranged as a dictionary . what will be the position of the word SACHIN in that sequence ?
a). 436 b). 590
c). 601 d). 751

139.
Three dice (each having six faces with each face having one number from 1 to 6 are rolled. What is the number of possible outcomes such that at least one dice shows the number 2 ?
a). 36 b). 81
c). 91 d). 116

140.
Groups each containing 3 boys are to be formed out of 5 boys – A , B , C , D and E such that no one group contains both C and D together. What is the maximum number of different groups?
a). 5 b). 6
c). 7 d). 8

141.
Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6 , each face carrying one different number , further
1. The Face 2 is opposite to the face 6
2. The Face 1 is opposite to the face 5
3. The Face 3 is between the face 1 and face 5
4. The face 4 is adjacent to the Face 2 .
Which one of the following is correct?
a). The face 2 is adjacent to the Face 3
b). The Face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4
c). The Face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6
d). None of the above

142
. Each of the 3 persons is to be given some identical items such that product of the numbers of items received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In How many maximum different ways can this distribution be done.
a). 21 b). 24
c). 27 d). 33

143
. 6 equidistance vertical lines are drawn on a board. 6 equidistance horizontal lines are also drawn on the board cutting the 6 vertical lines and the distance between any two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to that between any two consecutive vertical lines. What is the maximum number of square thus formed?
a). 37 b). 55
c)126 d). 225

144.
A person has to completely put each three liquids , 403 liters of petrol , 465 liters of diesel and 496 liters of mobile oil in bottles of equal size without mixing any the above three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled.
What is the least possible number of bottles required?
a). 34 b).44
c). 46 d). None of the above

145
. A and B can complete work together in 5 Days. If A works at twice his speed and B at half of his speed, this work can be finished in 4 days. How many days would it take for A alone to complete the Job.
a). 10 b). 12
c). 15 d). 18

146.
If all the numbers from 501 to 700 are written , what is the total number of times does the digit 6 appear?
a). 138 b). 139
c). 140 d). 141

147.
Amit starts from a point A and walks to another point B and then returns from B to A by his car and thus takes a total time of 6 hours and 45 minutes. If he had driven both ways in his car , he would have taken 2 hours less. How long would it take for him to walk both ways?
a). 7 hours 45 minutes b). 8 Hours 45 minutes
c). 8 hours 30 minutes d). 8 hours 45 minutes

148.
A Train completes a journey with a few stoppages in between at an average speed of 40 Km per hour. If the train had not stooped anywhere , it would have completed the journey at an average speed of 60 Km per hour . On an average , how many minutes per hour does the train stop during the journey ?
a). 20 minutes per hour b). 18 minutes per hours
c). 15 minutes per hours d). 10 minutes per hours

149.
The average salary of 100 employees in an office is Rs 16000 per month . The management decided to raise salary of every employee by 5 % but stooped a transport allowance of Rs 800 per month which was paid earlier to every employee. What will be the new average monthly salary?
a). Rs 16000 b). Rs 16500
c). Rs 16800 d). cannot be known since data are insufficient

150.
Three identical vessels A, B and C are filled with water , mercury and Kerosene respectively up to the equal height . The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If three taps are opened simultaneously, then which vessel is emptied first ?
a). Vessel B b). All the Vessels A , B and C will be emptied simultaneously
c). Vessel A d). Vessel C

Indianisation of the superior Civil Services became one of the major demands of the political movement compelling the British Indian Government to consider setting up of a Public Service Commission for recruitment to its services in the territory. The first Public Service Commission was set up on October 1st, 1926. However, its limited advisory functions failed to satisfy the people’s aspirations and the continued stress on this aspect by the leaders of our freedom movement resulted in the setting up of the Federal Public Service Commission under the Government of India Act 1935. Under this Act, for the first time, provision was also made for the formation of Public Service Commissions at the provincial level.

The Constituent Assembly, after independence, saw the need for giving a secure and autonomous status to Public Service Commissions both at Federal and Provincial levels for ensuring unbiased recruitment to Civil Services as also for protection of service interests. With the promulgation of the new Constitution for independent India on 26th January, 1950, the Federal Public Service Commission was accorded a constitutional status as an autonomous entity and given the title – Union Public Service Commission Constitutional Provisions

The Union Public Service Commission has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India. The Commission consists of a Chairman and nine Members.

The terms and conditions of service of Chairman and Members of the Commission are governed by the Union Public Service Commission (Members) Regulations, 1969.

The Commission is serviced by a Secretariat headed by a Secretary with two Additional Secretaries, a number of Joint Secretaries, Deputy Secretaries and other supporting staff.

The Union Public Service Commission have been entrusted with the following duties and role under the Constitution:

Recruitment to services & posts under the Union through conduct of competitive examinations;

Recruitment to services & posts under the Central Government by Selection through Interviews;

Advising on the suitability of officers for appointment on promotion as well as transfer-on-deputation;

Advising the Government on all matters relating to methods of Recruitment to various services and posts;

Disciplinary cases relating to different civil services; and

Miscellaneous matters relating to grant of extra ordinary pensions, reimbursement of legal expenses etc.

The major role played by the Commission is to select persons to man the various Central Civil Services and Posts and the Services common to the Union and States (viz. All-India Services).

RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS SERVICES AND POSTS

To Duties & Role of the Commission

Under Article 320 of the Constitution of India, the Commission are, inter-alia, required to be consulted on all matters relating to recruitment to civil services and posts.

RECRUITMENT is made by one of the following three methods:

(i) Age limits :
21-30 years as on 1.7.2005. (Upper age limit relaxable for SCs/STs, OBCs and certain other categories as specified in Para 3(ii) of Notice).

(ii) Educational Qualifications :
Bachelor’s degree of a recognised university with at least one of the subjects namely Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science, Botany, iaspapers.info/category/chemistry" title='Read more about Chemistry'>Chemistry, iaspapers.info/category/geology" title='Read more about Geology'>Geology, Mathematics, Physcs, Statistics and Zoology or a Bachelor’s degree in Agriculture, Forestry or in Enginerring or an equivalent qualification (Para 3(iii) of Notice).

(iii) No. of permissible attempts :
Four (Seven attemps of OBCs and no limit for SCs/STs (Para 3 (iv) of Notice)

(iv) Fee :
Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only)
(No fee for SCs/STs/Physically disabled only)

Instructions to candidates for filling up the Application Form for the Indian Forest Service Examination, 2005.

Side 1 of Application Form

Column 1 : Examination for which applying
Darken the circle against “IFS”, in the box pertaining to Name of examination, write IFS starting from the first box on the left. Also write 2007 in the boxes meant for year of examination.

Column 2 : Fee
If you have paid the requisite fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One hundred only), darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
If you have not paid the fee and are claiming fee remission as SC, ST or Physically Handicapped, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box.

N.B. : Fee is payable only in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamp, as per instructions against Column 12.

Column 3 : (I) Whether Physically Handicapped?
If you are not a physically handicapped person, darken circle 1 for No and write 1 in the box; or
If you are a physically handicapped person, darken circle 2 for yes and write 2 in the box.
(II) If yes, indicate category

Fill up this Column only if your answer to Column 3(I) is yes.
If you are Orthopaedically handicapped, darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
If you are Blind, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box; or
If you are Deaf-Mute, darken circle 3 and write 3 in the box.

Column 4 : Community
If you belong to SC, darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
If you belong to ST, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box; or
If you belong to OBC, darken circle 3 and write 3 in the box; or
If you belong to General Category (Others), darken circle 4 and write 4 in the box.

Note 1 : Candidates belonging to OBCs but comming in the Creamy Layer and thus not being entitled to OBC reservation should indicate their community as “General Category (Others) Code No. 4″.
Note 2 : Candidates belonging to neither SC, ST, nor OBC communities should write Code No. 4 (General Category) against the Column for Community and not leave it blank.
Note 3 : No change in the community status indicated by a candidate in his/her application form for the Examination will ordinarily be allowed by the Commission at a subsequent stage.

Column 5 : Sex
If you are Male, darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
If you are Female, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box;

Column 6 : Nationality
If you are an Indian national, darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
If you are not an Indian national, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box.

Column 7 : Name of the candidate
For filling up this column, first write in the boxes your full name (in iaspapers.info/category/english" title='Read more about English'>English) in capital letters exactly as recorded in your Matriculation/High School/Secondary or equivalent examination certificate. Write a single letter in a box. Leave a box blank between any two parts of the name. Then darken the corresponding circle below each letter. Do not darken a circle below a blank box. Do not overshoot the boxes. Abbreviate name only if necessary. Do not use any prefix such as shri, Kum., Dr. etc with your name.
See sample filled up form in the brochure for guidance.

Column 8 : Date of Birth
Darken the appropriate circles for the day, month and year of your birth as recorded in your Matriculation/High School/Secondary or equivalent examination certificate. Then write in the boxes using numerals 01 to 31 for day; numerals 01 to 12 for month and the last two digits for the year of birth.
See sample filled up form in the brochure for guidance.

Column 9 : Father’s Name
Write your father’s name (in iaspapers.info/category/english" title='Read more about English'>English) in capital letters. Write a single letter in each box. Leave a box blank between any two parts of the name. Do not use any prefix such as Shri, Dr. etc.

Column 10 : Address
Write your complete mailing address including your name in iaspapers.info/category/english" title='Read more about English'>English capital letters or Hindi within the box provided for the purpose. Also write the PIN Code therein. Write with blue or black ball pen only. Do not write outside the box. Please note that this address will be photocopied as such in all letters to be sent to you and therefore, it should be very clearly and legibly written.
If you make any mistake in writing the address, cover the whole box with an exact sized white paper slip and rewrite your address on that.

Column 11 : Photograph
Paste firmly in the space provided your recent photograph of 4 cm. x 5 cm. size (preferably in Black & white). Do not staple the photograph. Photograph should neither be signed by you nor it should be got attested.

Column 12 : Space for CRF Stamp
Fee to be paid for the Indian Forest Service Examination is Rs. 100/- (Rupees One hundred only). SC/ST and Physically Handicapped candidates are not required to pay any fee. No fee exemption is however available to OBC candidates and they are required to pay the prescribed full fee.

Fee is payable only through Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (Not postage stamps). No other mode of payment is acceptable. Obtain only one single CRF Stamp of Rs. 100/- denomination from the post office and paste it firmly within the box. After pasting the CRF Stamp on the form, get it cancelled from the post office of purchase in the space provided. Do not staple the CRF Stamp.

Side 2 of Application Form

Column 13 : (I) Are you residing in a remote area or abroad
If you are residing in a remote area specified in Para 6 of the Notice of the Examination or abroad, darken circle 1 against Yes and write 1 in the box; or
If you are not residing in a specified remote area/abroad, darken circle 2 against No and write 2 in the box.

N.B. : Candidates residing in a remote area specified in the Notice of the Examination or abroad are entitled to one week’s additional time for submission of application form.
(II) If yes, indicate area code :
Darken the appropriate circles for the area code as given below and then write the same code in the boxes.

Area	Code	Area	Code
Assam	01	Sikkim	08
Meghalaya	02	Jammu & Kashmir	09
Arunachal Pradesh	03	Lahaul and Spiti District and Pangi Sub Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh	10
Mizoram	04
Manipur	05	Andman & NicobarIsland	11
Nagaland	06	Lakshadweep	12
Tripura	07	Abroad	13

: Examination Centre Code
Choose the Examination Centre from the list given below where you wish to appear and see its code. Darken the appropriate circles and then write the same code in the boxes. Do not indicate more than one centre.

List of Centres of Examination

Column 15 : Educational Qualification Code

Codes prescribed for educational qualification are as follows :

Choose the correct code applicable in your case and darken the appropriate circles. Write the same code in the boxes.
Note: For prescribed subjects see para 3 (iii) of Notice.

Column 16:
(I) Whether claiming age relaxation
If you are claiming age relaxation, darken circle 1 for Yes and write 1 in the box; or If you are not claiming age relaxation, darken circle 2 for No and write 2 in the box.
(II) If Yes, indicate category code Fill up this Column only if your response to Column 16(I) is Yes. Darken the appropriate circles for category codes given below and then write the same code in the boxes.
Category – Codes for Claiming Age Relaxation
(Refer Para 3(ii) (b) of Commission’s Notice published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar)

(I) Optional subject
Choose any two optional subject from the list given below and see their codes. Darken the appropriate circles and then write the same code in the boxes.

(II) No. of attempts already made?
Write the number of attempts already made by you in the Indian Forest Services Examination in the boxes and darken the appropriate circles. If no attempt has been made by you earlier, darken circles 00 and write ‘00’ in the boxes.

Columns 21 and 22 :
Candidates appearing for the Indian Forest Services Examination 2005 are not required to fill any of these columns. They should, therefore, leave these Columns blank.

Column 23 : Declaration
The candidate must read the declaration carefully before signing. In Sub-para (i), the candidate must fill up the Examination Notice number viz. 06/2005 and date of publication of Notice in Employment News/Rozgar Samachar viz., 05.02.2005 in the spaces provided before the asterisk marks.

Column 24 : Signature of candidate
Make your usual signature in blue or black ball pen within the box provided. Your signature must not overflow or touch the border of the box provided. Do not merely write your name in capital letters in place of signature. Unsigned applications will be rejected.
Also write the place and date of signing the form in the spaces provided for the purpose.

Verify the following before mailing the application
1. That you have used the application form purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices only.

2. That you have filled in all the relevant columns of the application form by blackening the appropriate circles and also writing the corresponding code(s) in boxes. It may be carefully checked that there is no variation between the entries made by you by darkening the circles and those written in the accompanying boxes.

3. That you have pasted your recent photograph preferably in black & white (unsigned and unattested) in column 11 of the application form.

4. That in case you are required to pay fee, you have affixed a Central Recruitment Fee Stamp of Rs. 100/- denomination in column 12 of the application form and have got it cancelled from the Post Office.

5. That you have signed in column 24 of the application form.

6. That only one application form and one acknowledgement card is being mailed in the envelope supplied to you with the Brochure and no other enclosure is attached therewith.

7. That you have written the name of examination viz., “Indian Forest Service Examination, 2005″ on the envelope meant for despatch of application form and acknowledgement card. SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

Special instructions to Candidates for Conventional type of papers