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General Studies 2003 (Prelims) (Paper – I)

abhishek kumar singh — Tue, 16 Aug 2011 11:30:53 +0000

1. ‘A’ and ‘B’are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist ‘C’ moves such that ACS is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse
The path followed by the cyclist is a circle
The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve
This type of motion is not possible
Correct Answer is (b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle

2. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in
Bihar
Chattisgarh
Jharkhand
Orissa
Correct Answer is (c) Jharkhand

3. Among the following commodities imported by India during the year 2000-01, which one was the highest in terms of Rupee value?
Edible oil
Fertilizers
Organic and inorganic chemicals
Pearls, precious and semi- precious stones
Correct Answer is (a) Edible oil

4. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements:
1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.
2.Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both land 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (a) Only 1

5. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
The presence of NaCl increase me rate of setting of Plaster of Paris
Gypsum is added to the cement to slowdown its rate of setting.
All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts
Barium and Strontium are found free in nature
Correct Answer is (d) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature

6. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
IPCL is India’s largest petrochemical company
RIL is the largest private sector company in India
MTNL is listed on NYSE
BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time
Correct Answer is (c) MTNL is listed on NYSE

7. Which amongst the following States has thehighest population density as per Census-2001 ?
Kerala
Madhya Pradesh
UttarPradesh
West Bengal
Correct Answer is (d) West Bengal

8. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitutionwas added by
First Amendment
Eighth amendment
Ninth Amendment
Forty Second Amendment
Correct Answer is (a) First Amendment

9. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in theyear 1946?
Rajendra Prasad
Jawaharlal Nehru
Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Rajagopalachari
Correct Answer is (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

10. The waterfall ‘Victoria’ is associated with theRiver
Amazon
Missouri
St. Lawrence
Zambeji
Correct Answer is (d) Zambeji

11. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha 1928)Was
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Mahatma Gandhi
Vithlbhai J. Patel
Mahadev Desai
Correct Answer is (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

12. The Kelkar proposals which were in the newsrecently were the
recommendations for reforms in the powersector
recommendations for tax reforms
guidelines for the privatization of publicsector undertakings
Guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution and the promotion of cng use
Correct Answer is (b) recommendations for tax reforms

Question No : 13

13. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two House ofIndian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission Repeal) Bill.
Which of/these statements is correct?
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1,2 and 3
Correct Answer is (d) 1,2 and 3

14. Life expectancy is highest in the world in
Canada
Germany
Japan
Norway
Correct Answer is (c) Japan

15. During the colonial period in India, what was the purpose of the Witley Commission?
To review the fitness of India for further political reforms
To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations
To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India
To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India
Correct Answer is (b) To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations

16. Octopus is
an arthropod
an echinoderm
a hemichordate
a mollusc
Correct Answer is (d) a mollusc

17. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body:
1. Swollen Lymph nodes
2. Sweating at night
3. Loss of memory
4. Loss of weight
Which of these are symptoms of AIDS?
l and 2
2,3 and 4
I,3and4
I,2,3and4
Correct Answer is (d) I,2,3and4

18. Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped on the Narmada river by
Pulakesin-I
Pulakesin-ll
Vikramaditya-1
Vikramaditya-11
Correct Answer is (b) Pulakesin-ll

19. Under which Article of the Indian constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes in the year 2002)?
Article 121
Article 122
Article 123
Article 124
Correct Answer is (c) Article 123

20. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a
) literateur
Musician
scientist
sportsperson
Correct Answer is (a) ) literateur

21. Consider the following statements:
1. The Maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in India is 49 per cent of the paid up capital.
2. Foreign Direct Investment upto 49 per cent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in India under the automatic route.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both l and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2

22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List-I cricketers) List II (country)
A.Barry Rchards 1.England
B. Tex Dexter 2.West Indies
C. Alan Davidson 3. South Africa
D. Charlie Griffith 4. New Zealand
5. Australia

A-3 B-2 C-5 D-1
A-5 B-1 C-4 D-2
A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2
A-5 B-2 C-4 D-1
Correct Answer is (c) A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2

23. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to
orientation
shape
size
spin
Correct Answer is (a) orientation

24. Consider the following statements:
1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans.
2.The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

25. Which among the following countries has the largest population?
Indonesia
Japan
Pakistan
Sudan
Correct Answer is (a) Indonesia

26. Assertion A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

27. Assertion A): During the year 2001-02, the value of India’s total exports declined, registering a negative growth of 2.17%
Reason R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, textiles and marine products.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

28. Assertion A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.
Reason R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (c) A is true but R’is false

29. Assertion A): The EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.
Reason R): GATT has played a significant role in the liberalisation of the economy.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

30. Assertion A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in 4 group.
Reason R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

31. Assertion A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain.
Reason R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

32. Assertion R) : ted when coal burns. The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.
Reason R) : The earth is not a perfect sphere.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

33. Assertion R): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.
Reason R) : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (c) A is true but R’is false

34. Assertion R) : The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason R) : The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

35. Assertion R) : Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason R) : The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest in very high when compared to that of temperate forests.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

36. Assertion R) : In 1916, Maulana Moha-mmad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative council.
Reason R) : The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

37. Assertion R) : Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an Emperor from the north-west frontier.
Reason R) :There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

38. Assertion R) : Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator re- ceive rainfall throughout theyear.
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

39. Assertion A) : Saluva Narasimha put anend to the old dynasty andassumed the royal title.
Reason R He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

40. Assertion A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a untitled Indian nation.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

41. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?
China
India
Indonesia
Sri Lanka
Correct Answer is (b) India

42. Consider the following statements:
1. In Mecedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority.
2. In Kosovo, Serbians are a majority.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

43. Israel has common borders with
Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
Turkey, Syia, Iraq and Yemen
Correct Answer is (a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

44. What is the correct sequence of the rivers-Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?
Godavari – Mahanadi – Narmada – Tapi
Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi
Narmada – Godavari – Tapi – Mahanadi
Narmada – Tapi – Godavari Ã¢â‚¬â€œ Mahanadi
Correct Answer is (b) Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi

45. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by oneper cent, its mass remaining the same, the valueof ‘g’ on the earth’s surface would
increase by 0.5 %
increase by 2%
decrease by 0.5%
decrease by 2%
Correct Answer is (b) increase by 2

46. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
Under the leadership of Duplex, the Frenchoccupied Madras in 1746
Correct Answer is (a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499

47. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachiopposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Correct Answer is (d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachiopposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact

48. Consider the following statements :
1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%
2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the year 2001-2002.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

49. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world
India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world
India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
India ranks third in the world in coal production
Correct Answer is (b) India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world

50. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok sabha can have nominated members
There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister
A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Correct Answer is (c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister

51. With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment FDI) during the year 2001-02, consider the following statements:
1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in tea sector, the foreign ‘firm would have to disin-vest 33% of the equity in favour of an Indian partner within four years.
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, thesingle largest Indian shareholders should havea holding higher than 26%.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

52. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was
an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was ill-treated and expelled from the country
the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe
Correct Answer is (a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi

53. The battle of Dharmat was fought between
Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
Babur and Afghans
Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
Correct Answer is (c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh

54. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?
Kolkata
Kochi
Mumbai
Visakhapatnam
Correct Answer is (b) Kochi

55. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags different codes can be generated by waving
i) single flag in a different sequence of colours, or
ii) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or
iii) three flags in a different sequence of colours.
The maximum umber of codes that can be generated is
6
9
15
18
Correct Answer is (c) 15

56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List-I Organisation) List II (Location)
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee
C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune
Institute of National Integration 4 . Hyderabad
5. Kanpur

A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
A-5 B-1 C-4 D-3
A-3 B-4 C-5 D-2
A-5 B-4 C-2 D-3
Correct Answer is (d) A-5 B-4 C-2 D-3

57. Tim Montgomery set .a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in
Long Jump
110m Hurdle Race
100m Dash
High Jump
Correct Answer is (c) 100m Dash

58. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
Only l
Only 2
Both l and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2

59. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will
decrease in size
flatten into a disc-like shape
increase in size
maintain the same size and shape
Correct Answer is (c) increase in size

60. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative powers rests with
The President of India
The Chief Justice of India
The Parliament
The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Correct Answer is (c) The Parliament

Solved General Knowledge Questions

Amit Rajput — Sun, 12 Jun 2011 08:51:47 +0000

1. Ganpati festival was started by—
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. The name ‘Indian National Congress’ was given by—
(A) S. N. Banerjee
(B) Feroz Shah Mehta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) M. G. Ranade

3. German Silver is the alloy combination of—
(A) Copper, Zinc and Nickel
(B) Copper, Aluminium and Nickel
(C) Chromium, Nickel and Mercury
(D) Copper, Lead and Chromium

4. Who is considered the ‘Guardian of public purse’ ?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Public Accounts Committee

5. Where is Nandapa Wild-life Sanctuary ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh

6. Which of the following committees on education is considered as the Magna Carta of
English Education in India ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Raleigh Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Hunter Commission

7. Who said—“Patriotisim is religion and religion is love for India” ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raj Narain Bose
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

8. The famous ‘Kirtistambha’ at Chittor was built by—
(A) Rana Pratap
(B) Rana Kumbha
(C) Rana Hammir
(D) Rana Sangram Singh

9. Gold coins in India were first introduced by—
(A) Sakas
(B) Parthians
(C) Indo-Greeks
(D) Kushans

10. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Light
(D) Intensity of light

11. Which of the following is known as ‘morning star’ ?
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn

12. All the following foods lack vitamin C, except—
(A) Rice
(B) Meat
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk

13. The fourth state of matter is—
(A) Super fluids
(B) Small particles suspended in the gas
(C) Liquid crystals
(D) Plasma

14. The leading producer of coffee in the world is—
(A) Turkey
(B) Brazil
(C) Venezuela
(D) Cuba

15. The Bhutia group of languages does not include—
(A) Ladakhi
(B) Tibetan
(C) Lepcha
(D) Sherpa

16. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh

17. Which of the following matchings is wrong ?
(A) Vijayawada — Narmada
(B) Lucknow — Gomti
(C) Badrinath — Alaknanda
(D) Ayodhya — Saryu

18. The first nuclear reactor of India was named as—
(A) Urvashi
(B) Rohini
(C) Kamini
(D) Apsara

19. Fundamental right to education has been brought through—
(A) 83rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(B) 86th Constitution (Amendment) Act
(C) 93rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(D) 96th Constitution (Amendment) Act

20. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) caters to—
(A) Early Child care and Education alone
(B) Early child care and Education with five other components
(C) Early Child care and Education with four other components
(D) Early Child care and three other components

21. Education Commission in independent India which focused on Secondary Education was chaired by—
(A) Dr. D. S. Kothari
(B) A. Lakshmiswami Mudaliar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Triguna Sen

22. Education Commission in pre-independence India which comprehensively covered all
aspects of education is known as—
(A) Saddler Commission
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Sargent Plan
(D) Abbot-Wood Report

23. Tarachand Committee provided recommendations on—
(A) Student’s Unrest
(B) Religious and Moral Education
(C) Vocationalisation of Education
(D) Secondary Education

24. State expenditure of 6 percent of G. D. P. was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission (1966)
(B) National Education Policy (1968)
(C) National Policy on Education (1986)
(D) Review Committee on NPE (1986)

25. The latest National Curriculum Framework by NCERT came into existence in—
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006

Answers :
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C)

Strategy For IAS Exam

Ajit kumar singh — Thu, 11 Nov 2010 07:33:48 +0000

The IAS (Indian Administrative Service) is one of the premier services in India that offers an attractive and challenging career for everyone, With this service, one can get fame and glamour. As an IAS officer, an individual handles all government affairs. This service also includes the framing and implementation of policy at the central policy. On the other hand, at district level it involves the district affairs. After cracking the competitive exam, one can hold various administrative posts such as District collector, Head of Public Enterprises, Head of Departments etc. So if you want to make your career in this field, you have to clear civil services exam. We can divide this competitive exam into two parts i.e Prelim and mains. The prelim exam is conducted every year in the month of May or June. There are two papers in this examination i.e. General Studies and some optional subject.

For General Studies paper, you may find questions on various important topics such as Indian Polity and Economy, Current Affairs of National and International Importance, Mental ability and basics of Statistics, Indian and World Geography, history of India including Indian National Movement etc. This paper may also consist questions on planning, developmental programs, budgeting, latest issues of political and constitutional importance, natural resources, committees and much more. So you should prepare well on all these topics for General Studies Paper.

In the IAS Prelim Exam, you will also give a paper on a subject of your choice. There are many subjects such as Electrical Engineering, Indian History, Economics, Mathematics, Mechanical Engineering, Political Science and much more. So you can select your favorite subject for optional subject paper. Generally, students select their option subject which they have opted in graduation. But there is no such compulsion. You can choose any subject. After choosing the subject, an individual should know what types of questions were being asked in the last years. It will be the best if you attempt last year papers. Apart this, you can also attempt practice tests for IAS exam. This practice tests may help you in cracking IAS exam with good marks.

General Studies Series C 2010

Aman — Tue, 21 Sep 2010 09:55:34 +0000

1. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel,
who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar,

2. Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel

(b) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari

(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

3. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive
process?

(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids (c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen

(b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H20 (d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins

4. From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the
correct sequence of evolution?

(a) Otter – Tortoise – Shark (c) Tortoise – Shark – Otter L t_M

(b) Shark – Tortoise – Otter (d) Shark – Otter – Tortoise

5. Consider the following

1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer

Which of the statements given above is / are correct? J WJ^^^^

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a
condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition?

(a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2

(b) The inhaled CO has much higher J affinity for haemoglobin as commpared to oxygen

(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.
2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

8. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the
following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female

(b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections

(d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than an exposure to contaminated needle

9. What are the possible limitations of- India in mitigating the global warming at present and in
the immediate future?

1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.
2. India cannot invest huge funds III research and development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 - (d) 1, 2 and 3

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British Empire (jurisdiction/rule/mandate) automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct? JG^^^^^’ J

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Examine the following statements:

1. All colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant.
2. Some colours are pleasant. 4. Some colours are not pleasant. Given that the statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?

(a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 1 is false (c) 2 is false (d) 3 is true

12. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between India and European Union, what is the
difference between European Commission and European Council?

1. European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas European Council participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic policies of the European Union.

2. European Commission comprises the Heads of State or government of member countries whereas the European Council comprises of the persons nominated by European Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. The approximate representation of land use classification in India is

(a) Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%

(b) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%

(d) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%

14. With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are
routed, consider the following statements:

1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only

15. In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission?

(a) Currency Futures Trading

(b) Commodities Futures Trading

(d) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading

16. Which one of the tol1owing is NOT a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm?

(a) Partners should be less than 20

(b) Partnership and management need not be separate

(d) It is corporate body with perpetual succession

17. With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the
statements is NOT correct?

(a) The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India

(b) The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non-Resident Indians having accounts in India

(d) The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee’

18. With reference to India, consider the following:

1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of- villages by Bank Branches

Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in

India?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

19. What was the immediate reason for Ahmed Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third
Battle of Panipat?

(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore

(b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab

(c) He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad,’ Sialkot and Pasrur)

(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his kingdom

20. With reference to ‘Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements:

1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondicherry. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Why did Buddhism start declining m India in the early medieval times?

1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism.
2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.
3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

22. Consider the following statements:

The functions of commercial banks m India include

1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2

23. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax revenue
has significantly declined in the last five years?

(a) Service tax (b) Personal income tax (c) Excise duty (d) Corporation tax

24. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as
to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the
Panchayats in that particular State?

(a) District Planning Committees (c) Finance Ministry of that State

(b) State Finance Commission (d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State

25. Consider the following statements:

In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are

1. Levied by the Union I 2. Collected by the States j

Which of the statements given above “is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Exam Preparation Tips

Amit Rajput — Mon, 06 Sep 2010 10:07:10 +0000

Within our time in school studying, we are bound to take as many exams along the way. All of these can sometimes stress us a lot. We are always bothered how we are going to get high scores. Sometimes, we work really hard studying our lessons but still, we only get an average result. In order to perform best in your examinations, there should be a lot of preparation. The amount of preparation will determine how confident you will be when taking your exams.

Different people have different strategies on their exam preparations. Some people only studies moments before the test, while others study months before it. No matter which way suits for you, you have to make sure that you do it effectively.

The best way of studying is the willingness to learn. When one has the amount of determination and interest with the given subject, he will be eager in studying it. For example, if we do not like a math subject perhaps, we will always have low grades on it. Why? Because we do not find it interesting, and that is why we just take it for granted. Remember that if you take time to learn something you do not like, you will find interest from it after some time. If you are willing to study it and offer more time for that certain subject, you will not find difficulty when taking an exam.

The best technique some students do when they need to prepare for examinations is to study it from the time it was discussed in class. This means that the moment it has been taught, always think of it and remember the details. It will be best if you study all the week’s lessons every end of the week. Do that habit each passing week so you are stocking knowledge into your mind one at a time. People who studies only before the exam will find a lot of difficulty because they are cramming all the lessons and try recalling them all at once. This can really stress the mind, and you even might find difficulty trying to remember them all.

But study them week after week; it will be just an exercise for you. Just like when we have a new regular task. For example, if we are told to do the groceries every week, we need to do it once a week and for the coming weeks. Each week, if we come to that particular day of doing the grocery, we do not have to remember it, because it is already programmed in our minds that there s a task we should do, and it is doing the grocery. If you put to your mind a task and decide to do it every specific time, then you do not have to stress it out when doing it.

Forgetting is the very last thing a student wants when exam preparations is at hand. We have to make sure that we know the techniques on how to remember all the things we should be doing and lessons us should be studying at that time. Do that once at a time, and you will even avoid having mental blocks.

How to Choose an Optional Subject?

Amit Rajput — Tue, 17 Aug 2010 12:28:18 +0000

A meticulously sought after planning and proper & timely guidance can enable an alert individual to clear the tough UPSC examinations. According to the UPSC aspirants, half of the battle is won right after selecting the right optionals for the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) selection examination. Provided that optionals in each IAS preliminary and IAS mains examination determine a candidate’s scoring pattern, questions asked in the final interview are based on the choice of optional subjects chosen.

There is a plethora of subjects to choose from, since students belong to varied streams of education, the subjects on offer include Science subjects that expands over Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology; Humanities subjects that expands over History, Political Science, Public Administration, Geography and Sociology and languages such as Hindi, English, Urdu and Pali. UPSC also offers subjects such as Anthropology, Psychology and Philosophy. Additionally, the more number of subjects make it more difficult for students to make choices in optionals.

Optional subjects are chosen on the basis of a number of parameters, on one hand there are optionals that are considered to be scoring where as there are others that are favored for their relevance to either General Studies papers or Current Affairs and essay questions whereas there are many who choose subjects for their defined set of topics asked and comparatively short type answers. Students feel that this bit of planning makes their choice of subject a success as there are combinations that have common IAS syllabus which reduces their workloads and improves their chances of scoring in civil services examination.

Likewise botany and zoology are two complementary optionals that have common syllabus as these prove to be advantageous for their future. The IAS syllabus talks about emerging issues such as genetically modified (GM) foods, cloning, biotechnology and environmental sensitization. However, students should also show their aptitude skills for the subject they choose as they require a fair degree of specialized knowledge. While preparing for the optional, it is advised to study first for the IAS mains paper and then prepare for IAS preliminary as this provides students an edge and then allow them to specialize in certain scoring areas.

IAS Papers : General Studies Paper II (Main) 2007

Ajit kumar singh — Sun, 07 Mar 2010 10:42:36 +0000

GENERAL STUDIES
Paper- II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question

1. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15×2=30

(a) Indo-Russian Defence Co-operation

(b) India’s response, to political crisis In Bangladesh

2. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 wordS): 2×5= I 0

(a) SAFTA

(b) India and East Asia Summit (EAS)

(d) Panchsheel in India’s Foreign Policy

(e) Relevance of NAM

3. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words) : 2×5=10

(a) Pravasi Bhartiya Bima Yojana, 2006

(b) Indian All-Women Contingent to Liberia

(d) Know India Programme (KIP)

(e) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs

4. Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): 30

(a). What is Dumping? Evaluate the remedial measures taken by Government of India vis-à-vis WTO provisions

regarding dumping.

(b) Comment on the relationship between credit availability and agricultural growth in India.

5. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words )

(a). What is the meaning and aim of social forestry ? What are the main weakness noticed in social forestry programme?

(b). Bring out the main objective of Rastriya Krishi Bima Yojana. The scheme is being implemented by which agency.

(c). Explain Mega Food park Scheme of Government of India.

6. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words ) : 2×15 = 30

(a) Explain the term Merit Goods

(b) What is Cheap Money?

(d) What is Hot Money?

(e). Explain the Concept Trickle Down Theory

(f) What is Stagflation?

(g) What is Engel’s Law?

(h) Meaning of CCIL

(i) What is Administered Price?

(j) What is Venture Capital?

(k) Explain the term Balance on Current Account

(I) What is Consolidated Fund?

(m) What is Budget Deficit?

(n) Explain the term Most Favored Nations

(0) Meaning of Capital- Output Ratio

7. Write about any two of the following (in about 150 words each): 15×2=30

(a) Impact of globalization on state system and its institutions

(b) SAARC Summit 2007

8. Write about the following (in about 20 words each): 2×5 = 10

(a) G-8 Summit 2007

(b) Hyde Act of 2006

(d) Operation Silence

(e) SAARC Human Rights Report 2006

9. Write about the following by expanding and explaining the objectives (in about 20 Words each): 2×5=10

(a) ICT4D

(b) BEMs

(d) BIMSTEC

(e) ECJ

10. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 30

(a). Explain the phenomenon of ozone depletion, its cause and effects . What efforts are needed to reduce it.

(b). what do you understanding by the term ‘biodiversity’? Examine the cause and consequence of degeneration of biodiversity?

11. Answer any two of the following (answer for each question should be in about 150 words) : 15×2=30

(a) What are the alternative fuels available for the transport sector? Discuss their characteristics, advantages ‘and disadvantages in their utilization.

(b) Explain the objectives and the current achievements of human genome project.

12. Answer all the five (in about 20 words each) : 2×5=10

(a) What is firewall ?

(b) What is mal ware ?

(i) MPEG (ii) ISP

(iii) HTML (iv) ASCII

(d) What is Root kit?

(e) What is computer architecture?

13. (a) In the year 2000 out of a total 1750 workers of a factory 1200 workers were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 2005 , the number of union workers increased to 1510 of which 1290 were men . On the other hand the number of non union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were
men. 8

(i) Put the above information in a proper table with title.

(ii) Calculate the increase in the percentage of the female workers belonging to the union in that five year period.

(b) The marks obtained by 20 students in a subject are given: 8
32, 62, 72, 46, 52, 74, 53, 42, 58, 61, 59, 46, 36, 76, 58, 77, 62, 48, 36, 39.

Form a frequency distribution table with class interval 10. Also Draw the Histogram.

14. (a) For the following distribution of statistics test grades, construct a frequency polygon and answer the following: 8

(i) How many test grades are greater than 87 ?

(ii) What percentage of test grades are greater than 83?

(iii) What percentage of test grades are lower than72? ‘

(iv) What percentage of test grades are between 72 and 79 (inclusive )

Test Grades:
73, 92, 57, 89, 70, 95, 75, 80, 47, 88, 47, 48, 64, 86, 79, 72, 71, 77, 93, 55, 75, 50, 53, 75, 85, 50, 82, 45, 40, 82,60, 89, 79, 65, 54, 93, 60, 83, 59

(b). Construct an appropriate diagram to show the following data of a university: 8

Course No. of Students

Engineering 440

Arts 220

Agriculture 120

Home Science 80

Economic 60

Total = 920

15. (a) What do you understand by 2

(i) Primary and secondary data

(ii) Data classification

(iii) Measures of central tendency

(iv) Characteristics of good average

(b) The mean wage of 100 laborers working in a factory running two shifts of 60 and 40 workers respectively is Rs. 38.

The mean wage of 60 labourers working in the morning shift is Rs 40. Find the mean wage of 40 Labourers working in the evening shift. 2

(c) The mean age of a group of 5 boys is 16 years. Another boy joins the group and then the mean age of the group becomes 18 years. How old is the newcomer? 2

(d) Arithmetic means of two completely different sets of values may be same. When extreme values are taken into consideration, the arithmetic mean is largely affected. Is it merit or demerit of arithmetic mean and give reasons for your statement? 2

IAS Papers : Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2006

Ajit kumar singh — Sun, 10 Jan 2010 13:18:38 +0000

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2006
GENERAL STUDIES (Booklet-D) Questions Paper
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 150

1. Match List I (Indian Scientist/Scholar) with List II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List I L ist II
(Indian Scientist/Scholar) ( Area of Work)
A. C.N.R. Rao 1 . Telecommunication
B. Jagdish Bhagwati 2 . Physics
C. CG.N. Ramachandran 3 . Economics
D. Ashok Junjhunwala 4 . Solid State Chemistry and Material Science
Code :
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 2 3 4 1

2. In which country is the committee which selects winners for Nobel Peace Prize located ?
a) N orway
b) S weden
c) F inland
d) D enmark

3. In which Olympics Games did India last win a Gold Medal ?
a) M ontreal (1976)
b) M oscow (1980)
c) L os Angeles (1984)
d) A tlanta (1996)

4. Which of the following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala ?
1. I lmenite
2. Z ircon
3. S illimanite
4. T ungsten

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1 , 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 , 2 and 3, only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 2 only

5. Which is the correct chronological sequence of the major events given below ?
1. S LV-3 Launch
2. F ormation of Bangladesh
3. S ikkim becomes 22 nd State of the Indian Union
4. P okharan-I test
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
b) 3 – 1– 2 – 4
c) 2 – 1 – 3 –4
d) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1

6. With reference to the Government of India ’s various programmes, what is Nirmal Gram Puraskar ?
a) I t is an incentive scheme of scholarships for the single girl child in families in villages.
b) I t is an incentive scheme of scholarships for female sportspersons from villages who represent their states in any game.
c) I t is an incentive scheme for schools in the villages for computer education.
d) I t is an incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj institutions.

7. Who among the following laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta Empire ?
a) A moghavarsha I
b) D antidurga
c) D hruva
d) K rishna I

8. Recently Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh governments signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the linking of two
rivers as a link project. Which are these two rivers?
a) B etwa and Chambal
b) B etwa and Ken
c) C hambal and Son
d) K en and Narmada

9. Who among the following directed the film chosen as India ’s official entry for the year 2006 Academy Awards?
a) A door Gopalakrishnan
b) A mol Palekar
c) S anjay Leela Bansali
d) K unal Kohli

10. Which one among the following was awarded the CSIR Diamond Jubilee Technology Award 2004 in September, 2005 by
the Prime Minister of India ?
a) I nfosys Technologies Ltd.
b) M idas Communication Technologies
c) T ata Consultancy Services
d) B icon India Ltd.

11. Recently with which country ’s government did ONGC – Mittal Energy Limited (OMEL) sign a joint venture deal of $6
billion dealing with infrastructure, refinery and power ?
a) Colombia
b) Venezuela
c) Nigeria
d) Saudi Arabia

12. Which one of the following companies is associated with the exploration and commercial production of oil in
Barmer-Sanchore basin of Rajasthan ?
a) C airn Energy
b) U nocal Corporation
c) R eliance Energy Ventures
d) O NGC

13. Where is the Central Water and Power Research Station located ?
a) K hadakwasla
b) S ileru
c) Jamnagar
d) S risailam

14. Projects and Development India Limited is mainly engaged in design engineering, procurement and supervision of
construction / commissioning in which area /
a) P harmaceutical plants
b) P etroleum refineries and sugar factories
c) S hip-building yards
d) F ertilizer and allied chemical plants

15. Who is the President of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research ?
a) P resident of India
b) V ice-President of India
c) P rime Minister of India
d) U nion Minister of Science and Technology

16. The initial design and construction of which massive temple took place during the resign ofSuryavarman II ?
a) Sri Mariamman Temple
b) Angkor Vat
c) Batu Caves Temple
d) Kamakhya Temple

17. Indian Airlines (New name : Indian) have redesigned their logo which is a graphic wheel. This logo has been inspired
from which one of the following
a) H ampi Temples
b) M amallapuram Temples
c) Sun Temples , Konark
d) Khajuraho Temple

18. `Match List I (Person) with List II (Area of Distinction) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I L ist II
(Person) ( A rea of Distinction)
A. E.C.G. Sudarshan 1 . Theatre
B. V. Shanta 2 . Violin
C. T.N. Krishnan 3 . Research in Physics
D. Mahesh Dattani 4 . Cander treatment
5 . Water-harvesting
Code :
A B C D
a) 3 1 2 4
b) 2 4 5 1
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 2 1 5 4

19. Where is Davos – the venue of the annual meeting of World Economic Forum, located ?
a) France
b) Germany
c) Switzerland
d) Luxembourg

20. What is the Universal Product Code ( UPC) adopted for ?
a) Fire safety code in buildings
b) Earthwuake-resistant building code
c) Bar code
d) Against adulteration in eatables

21. What does the term ‘Dolby B’ or ‘Dolby C’ printed on tape recorders and other sound systems refer to ?
a) Frequency modulated system
b) Amplitude modulated system
c) Noise reduction circuit
d) Both DC and AC power can be used

22. Consider the following statements :
1. T he Richter scale is a logarithmic scale and so an increase of 1 magnitude unit represents a factor of 10 times in
amplitude.
2. E ach integer reading of the Richter scale has an energy 100 times that of the previous integer reading.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

23. For which sport is the Val Barker Cup awarded in the Olympic Games ?
a) S wimming
b) B oxing
c) L ong Jump
d) H igh Jump

24. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
a) States : Andhra Pradesh
b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State

25. Consider the following statements :
1. A ssam shares a border with Bhutan and Bangladesh .
2. W est Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal .
3. M izoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar .
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2, only
c) 2 and 3, only
d) 1 and 3, only

26. Consider the following statements :
1. T he Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company ’s monopoly of Indian trade.
2. U nder the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether
and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

27. When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of Mysore , who was the ruler of the Vijayanagar Empire ?
a) Sadasiva
b) Tirumala
c) Ranga II
d) Venkata II

28. Which are the materials generally employed as solder in soldering operation in electronics ?
a) Iron and tin
b) Lead and tin
c) Aluminium and lead
d) Aluminium and iron

29. Between which of the following was the ancient town of Takshasila located ?
a) Indus and Jhelum
b) Jhelum and Chenab
c) Chenab and Ravi
d) Ravi and Beas

30. With reference to the invaders in ancient India , which one of the following is the correct chronological order ?
a) Greeks – Sakas – Kushanas
b) Greeks – Kushanas – Sakas
c) Sakas – Greeks – Kushans
d) Sakas – Kushanas – Greeks

31. Consider the following statements :
1. T he Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were antagonistic towards Buddhism.
2. T he Pala rulers of Eastern India were patrons of Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

32. Which one of the following revolts was made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand Math ?
a) B hil uprising
b) R angpur and Dinapur uprising
c) B ishnupur and Birbhum rebellion
d) S anyasi rebellion

33. In the year 1613, where was the English Eastg India Company given permission to set up a factory (trading post) ?
a) Bangalore
b) Madras
c) Masulipattam
d) Surat

34. With reference to the revolt of the year 1857, who of the following was betrayed by a friend; captured and put to death by the British ?
a) Nana Sahib
b) Kunwar Singh
c) Khan Bahadur Khan
d) Tantia Tope

35. Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held in the year 1929 wherein a
resolution was adopted to gain complete independence from the British ?
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Motilal Nehru

36. How many numbers are there in all from 6000 to 6999 (Both 6000 and 6999 included) having at least one of their digits
repeated ?
a) 216
b) 356
c) 496
d) 504

37. Each of 2 women and 3 men is to occupy one chair out of 8 chairs, each of which is numbered from 1 to 8. First, women
are to occupy any two chairs from those numbered 1 to 4; and then the 3 men would occupy any three chairs out of the remaining
6 chairs. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done ?
a) 40
b) 132
c) 1440
d) 3660

38. Match List I (Place of Archaeological Monument) with List H (State) and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists :
L ist I L i st II
(Place of Archaeological Monument) (State)
A. Sisupalgarh 1 . Assam
B. Piprahwa 2 . Manipur
C. Goalpara 3 . Orissa
D. Bishnupur 4 . Uttar Pradesh
Code
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

39. In which one among the following is the speed of sound maximum ?
a) Air at 0°C
b) Air at 100°C
c) Water
d) Wood

40. Consider the following chemicals :
1. Benzene
2. Carbon tetrachloride
3. Sodium carbonate
4. Trichloroethylene
Which of the above is / are used as dry cleaning chemicals ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 ,2 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4

41. Consider the following statements :
1. C affeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a diuretic.
2. C itric acid is used in soft drinks.
3. A scorbic acid is essential for the formation of bones and teeth.
4. C itric acid is a good substitution for aerobic acid in our nutrition.
Which of the Statements given above are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 , 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 , 2, 3 and 4

42. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields.
b) Agriculture
c) Fisheries
d) Public health

43. Consider the following statements :
1. T here is a no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. T he Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

44. What is the new administrative capital proposed for Myanmar ?
a) Bassein
b) Mandalay
c) Myitkyina
d) Pyinmana

45. Consider the following statements :
1. Sikkim has the minimum area among the 28 Indian States ( Delhi and Pondicherry not included)
2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among Pondicherry , NCT of Delhi and other Union Territories .
3. Maharashtra has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian States ( Delhi and Pondicherry not
included)
Which of the Statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) 3 only

46. Match List I (Centre of Handicrafts) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using code given below the lists :
List I L ist II
(Centre of Handicrafts) (State)
A. Mon 1 . Arunachal Pradesh
B. Nalbari 2 . Assam
C. Pasighat 3 . Meghalaya
D. Tura 4 . Nagaland
Code
A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 1 3 4 2
c) 4 3 1 2
d) 1 2 4 3

47. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
a) Vikramaila Monastery : Uttar Pradesh
b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Himachal Pradesh
c) Udayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
d) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa : Andhra Pradesh

48. Consider the following statements :
1. T he Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with
respect to a matter in the State list
2. R esolutions approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Whom did Croatia defeat in the Davis Cup-2005 Finals to win the Davis Cup-2005 ?
a) United States of America
b) Slovak Republic
c) Argentina
d) Spain

50. Who among the following is a Hindustani classical singer ?
a) Geeta Chandran
b) Leela Samson
c) Gangubai hangal
d) Swapnasundari

51. In which state is the Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development located ?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Uttaranchal

52. Which one of the following Indian banks is not a nationalized bank/
a) Corporation bank
b) Dena bank
c) Federal bank
d) Vjaya Bank

53. Zayed bin Sultan-al- Nahyan was a long serving President of which of the following ?
a) Oman
b) Kuwait
c) United Arab Emirates
d) Saudi Arabia

54. In which one of the following areas die the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research make significant progress in the
year 2005?
a) R eprocessing the uranium-plutonium mixed carbide field of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor
b) N ew applications of radioisotopes in metallurgy
c) A new technology for production of heavy water
d) A new technology for high level nuclear waste management.

55. What is IndoNext which was launched in January, 2005 ?
a) A new scheme to promote Indian tourism
b) A new scheme to promote export of Indian handicrafts
c) A n association of the non-resident Indians to organize Pravasi Bhartiya Divas every year in India .
d) A n alternative trading platform being promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange and Regional Stock Exchanges.

56. In which one of the following oceans is Diamantina Trench situated ?
a) Pacific ocean
b) Atlantic ocean
c) Indian ocean
d) Arctic ocean

57. Consider the following statements :
1. P etronet LNG Ltd. in setting up another LNG terminal at Mangalore.
2. T he Head Office of the Dredging Corporation of India is at Visakhapatnam .
3. T he Narwapahar Mine is operated by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

58. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act ( FRBMA) concerns
a) fiscal deficit only
b) revenue deficit only
c) both fiscal deficit and revenue deficit
d) neither fiscal deficit nor revenue deficit

59. What does the 104 th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to ?
a) A bolition of Legislative Councils in certain states
b) I ntroduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India .
c) P roviding quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions
d) P roviding quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government

60. Consider the following statements in respect of welfare schemes launched by the Ministry of Rural Development,
Government of India :
1. Drinking water for rural areas is one of the components of the Bharat Nirmal Plan.
2. In the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 there is a provision that the statutory minimum wage applicable
to agricultural workers in the State has to be paid to the workers under the Act.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

Directions : The following six (6) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason
(R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
(a) B oth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) B oth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

61. Assertion (A) : The percentage of net sown area in the total area of Andhra Pradesh is less as compared to that of
West Bengal .
Reason (R) : The soil of most of Andhra Pradesh is laterite .

62. Assertion (A) : Muhammad bin Tughluq issue a new gold coin which was called Dinar by Ibn Batutah .
Reason (R) : Muhammad bin Tughluq wanted to issue toke currency in gold coins to promote trade with West
Asian and North African countries.

63. Assertion (A) : Cellulose is used in making shatter –proof glass.
Reason (R) : Polysaccharides are not soluble in water.

64. Assertion (A) : To orbit around the Sun, the planet Mars takes lesser time than the time taken by the Earth
Reason (R) : The diameter of the planet Mars is less than that of the Earth.

65. Assertion (A) : In India , every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state

66. Assertion (A) : Balance of Payments represents a better picture of a country ’s economic transactions with the rest
of the world than the ‘Balance of Trade ’
Reason (R) : ‘Balance of Payments ’ takes into account the exchange of both visible and invisible items whereas
‘balance of trade ’ does not.

67. In a tournament each of the participate was to play one match against each of the other participants.3 players fel ill after each of them had played three matches and had to leave the tournament. what was the total number of participants at the
beginning, if the total number of matches played was 75 ?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15

68. P , Q, R, S and T reside in a 5-storeyed (Ground + 4) building, and each of them resides on a separate floor. Further,
1. T does not reside on the topmost floor.
2. Q does not reside on the ground floor.
3. S resides on one storey above that of P and one storey below that of R
To know as to which one of the 5 persons resides on the ground floor which of the above statements are sufficient / insufficient ?
a) 1 and 3 are sufficient
b) 2 and 3 are sufficient
c) 1 , 2 and 3 are sufficient
d) 1 , 2 and 3 are insufficient

69. A box contains 5 sets of balls while there are 3 balls in each set. each set of balls has one colour which is different from every other set. what is the least number of balls that must be removed from the box in order to claim with certainty that a pair of balls of the same colour has been removed ?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

70. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN ?
a) Vietnam
b) Brunei Darussalam
c) Bangladesh
d) Myanmar

71. Consider the following statements in respect of India ’s advanced satellite INSAT-4A
1. Insat-4A was launched in December, 2005 from New Mexico .
2. The European commercial launch service provider Arian space was associated with the launch of INSAT-4A.
3. Tata-Sky – a digital cable service provider is associated with DTH television broadcasting services from INSAT-4A.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

72. Match List I (Person) with List II (Organization / Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List I L ist II
(Person) ( Organization / Area of work)
A. Chanda Kochhar 1 . Advertising
B. Amrita Patel 2 . Banking
C. Indira Nooyi 3 . Dairy Development
D. Piyish Pandey 4. Pepsi Co.
Code
A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 1 2 3

73. To which one of the following processes is the term CMYK related ?
a) Railway signaling
b) Navigation
c) Offset Printing
d) Electronic voting machine

74. Consider the following statements :
1. K ofi Annan- the UN Secretary General is from Nigeria .
2. K ofi Annan is the first UN Secretary General to be appointed from the ranks of the United Nations staff.
3. K ofi Annan was appointed for a second term to the office of the UN Secretary General.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

75. Which one of the following countries is not a participating team in the Football World Cup 2006 to be held in Germany
in July, 2006 ?
a) Russia
b) Togo
c) Ivory Coast
d) Switzerland

76. Consider the following statements :
1. Nobel Prize Awarding Ceremony takes place on December 10 of every year.
2. The Novel Prize for Literature was added later on to the other five areas – Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine,
Peace and Economics.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

77. The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with which one of the following ?
a) Mhapadma Nanda
b) Chandragupta Maurya
c) Ashoka
d) Samudragupta

78. What is Medecins Sans Frontieres (MSF) ?
a) An agency formed by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to check misuse of drugs by sportsperson.
b) Anon-governmental organization which specializes in International humanitarian aid and emergency medical
assistance.
c) An organization to develop applications of nanotechnology in medicine.
d) An organization of medical practitioners funded by the European Union which carried out research against spread of
AIDS.

79. Bermuda triangle extends up to which of the following places ?
1. Southern Florida
2. Puerto Rico
3. Hawaii Islands
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

80. Consider the following statements :
1. E LISA test is employed as the first and most basic test for an individual to detect cancer.
2. A lmost 50% of human beings have Rh+ blood while the remaining have Rh- blood.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

81. Which one of the following is printed on a commonly used fluorescent tube light ?
a) 2 29 K
b) 2 73 K
c) 6 500 K
d) 9 000 K

82. In which one of the following films did the Nobel Laureate Pearl S. Buck collaborate ?
a) S hatranj Ke Khilari
b) G uide
c) L awrence of Arabia
d) T itanic

83. Which one of the following countries is not a member of Nordic Council ?
a) Norway
b) Denmark
c) Iceland
d) United Kingdom

84. Which one among the following was the first to legalize euthanasia ?
a) Austria
b) Switzerland
c) Netherlands
d) Canada

85. Claims to the historical Macedonian territory have been a bone of contention between which of the following countries ?
a) Portugal and Spain
b) Bulgaria and Greece
c) Romania and Bulgaria
d) Portugal and Greece

86. Huangpu River flows through which one of the following cities ?
a) Beijing
b) ho Chi Minh city
c) Shanghai
d) Manila

87. Which one of the following countries is the leading producer of uranium ?
a) United States of America
b) Canada
c) Germany
d) Zambia

88. There are three parallel straight lines. Two points A and B, are marked on the first lines, points C and D are marked on the second line, and points E and F are marked on the third line. Each of these 6 points can move to any position on its respective straight line.
Consider the following statements :
1. T he maximum number of triangles that can be drawn by joining these points is 18.
2. T he minimum number of triangles that can be drawn by joining these points is zero.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

89. A mixed doubles tennis game is to be played between two teams (each team consists of one male and one female). There
are 4 married couples. No team is to consist of a husband and his wife. What is the maximum number of games that can be played ?
a) 12
b) 21
c) 36
d) 42
90. In an office, the number of persons who take tea is twice the number of persons who take only coffee. The number of
persons who take coffee is twice the number of persons who take only tea.
Consider the following statements :
1. T he sum of the number of persons who take either tea or coffee or both is four times the number of persons who take
both coffee and tea.
2. T he sum of the number of persons who take only coffee and those who take only tea is twice the number of persons who
take both tea and coffee.
which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

91. Consider the following statements :
1. A ppellate Tribunal for Electricity has been established by each State Government in India .
2. O ne of the components of the Accelerated Power Development and Reforms Programme (APDRP) is upgradation of
sub-transmission and distribution system for electricity in India
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Monastery S tate
a) Dhankar Monastery : Himachal Pradesh
b) Rumtek Monastery : Sikkim
c) Tabo Monastery : Himachal Pradesh
d) Kye Monastery : Arunachal Monastery

93. Match List I (Valley) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I L ist II
(Valley) ( State)
a) Markha Valley 1. Sikkim
b) Dzukou Valley 2. Himachal Pradesh
c) Sangla Valley 3. Jammu and Kashmir
d) Yumthang Vallye `4. Nagaland
Code
A B C D
a) 2 4 3 1
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 2 1 3 4
d) 3 4 2 1

94. 3 digits are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 without repeating any digit. What is the probability that their
product is odd ?
a) 2 /3
b) 5 /108
c) 5 /42
d) 7 /48

95.
16 64 64
9 18 25 25 18 1 9 18 1
36 16 X
(I) (II) (III)
a) 4
b) 1 6
c) 2 5
d) 3 6

96. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
a) M ahandi river rises in Chattisgarh
b) G odavari river rises in Maharashtra
c) C auvery river rises in Andhra Pradesh
d) T apti river rises in Madhya Pradesh

97. Where is Bundala Biosphere Reserve which has been recently added to the UNESCO ’s Man and Biosphere ( MAB)
network, located ?
a) Russia
b) India
c) Sri Lanka
d) Bangladesh

98. Consider the following statements :
1. A ccording to the Census 2001, Kerala has the smallest gap in male and female literacy rates among the 28 states of India
( Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
2. A ccording to the Census 2001, Rajasthan has literacy rate above the national average literacy rate.
Which of the statements give above is / are correct /
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

99. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
1. U nder the provisions of the Act, 100 days of employment in a year to every household whose adult members volunteer to
do unskilled manual work has become a fundamental rights ?
2. U nder the provisions of the Act, women are to get priority to the extent that one-half of persons who are given
employment are women who have asked for work.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

100. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the afghan rulers to the throne of Delhi ?
a) Sikandar Shah – Ibrahim Lodi – Bahlol Khan Lodi
b) Sikandar Shah – Bahol Khan Lodi – Ibrahim Lodi
c) Bahlol Khan Lodi – Sikandar Shah – Ibrahim Lodi
d) Bahlol Khan Lodi – Ibrahim Lodi – Sikandar Shah

101. Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which Mughal Emperor ?
a) Babar
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Aurangzeb

102. In Indian history, who was Abdul Hamid Lahori ?
a) An important military commander during Akbar’s reign.
b) An official historian of the reign of Shah Jahan.
c) An important noble and confident of Aurangzeb.
d) Achronicler and poet during the reign of Muhammad Shah

104. Who was the Governor-General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny ?
a) Lord Canning
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Lord Lytton

105. Consider the following statements about Madam Bhjkaji Cama :
1. Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at the International Socialist Conference in Paris in the year 1907.
2. Madam cama served as private secretary to Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Madam Cama was born to Parsi parents.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only

106. Lectures from Colombo to Almora is based on the experiences of which one of the following ?
a) Veer Savarkar
b) Annie Besant
c) Ramkrishna Paramhansa
d) Swami Vivekanand

107. Match List I (Leading Women Lawn tennis Player) with List II (Country) and select the correct answer using the code
given below the lists :
List I List II
(Leading Women Lawn Tennis Player) (Country)
A. Daniela Hantuchova 1 . Russia
B. Patty Schnyder 2 . Slovakia
C. Nadia Petrova 3 . France
D. Amelie Mauresmo 4 . Switzerland
Code
A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 2 4 1 3
d) 3 1 4 2

108. Each of the five persons A, B, C, D and E possesses unequal number (<10) of similar items A, B and C possess 21 items in
all, while C, D, and E possess 7 items in al. How many items do A and B possess in all ?
a) 1 5
b) 1 7
c) 1 8
d) Data is insufficient

109. There are 8 equidistant points A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H in the clockwise
direction on the periphery of a circle. in a time interval t, a person reaches from A to C with uniform motion while another person reaches the point E from the point B during the same time interval with uniform motion. Both the persons move in the same direction along the circumference of the circle and start at the same instant. how much time after the start, will the two persons meet each other ?
a) 4t
b) 7t
c) 9t
d) Never

110. Consider the following statements :
1. F ree and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State was made Fundamental Right by the
76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. S arva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. E ducation was included in the Concurrent List by the 42 nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

111. Which one of the following is not a Central University ?
a) Pondicherry University
b) Maulana Azad Nationla Urdu University , Hyderabad
c) Visva Bharti , Shanti Niketan
d) University of Madras , Chennai

112.In a question paper, there are four multiple-choice questions. Each question has a five choices with only one choice for
its correct answer. What is the total number of ways in which a candidate will not get al the four answers correct ?
a) 19
b) 120
c) 624
d) 1024

113. Match List I (Person) with List II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I L i st II
(Person) ( A rea of Work)
A. Ela Bhatt 1 . Theatre training
B. Mahashweta Devi 2. Women’s labour sector
C. Ebrahim Alkazi 3. Management teching
D. Vijay Govindarajan 4. Literature and social worker for the country ’s trial communities
Code
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 3 4 1 2
d) 2 1 4 3

114. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation ( PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial system ?
a) M . Hidayatullah
b) A .M. Ahmadi
c) A .S. Anand
d) P .N. Bhagwati

115. What is the name other vessel that delivers the nutrient rich blood from the stomach and small intestine to the liver ?
a) L eft hepatic artery
b) H epatic vein
c) R ight hepatic artery
d) H epatic portal vein

116. Consider the following statements with reference to human body :
1. T he common Bile duct releases its contents into stomach.
2. T he pancreatic duct releases its contents into duodenum
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

117. A watch showed a time of fourteen minutes past nine (9 hrs and 14 minutes). the positions of the hour-hand and the
minute-hand of the watch are exactly interchanged. the new time shown by the watch is closest to which one of the following ?
a) Twelve minutes to three
b) Thirteen minutes to three
c) Fourteen minutes to three
d) Fifteen minutes to three

118. Consider the following statements :
1. The agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area ( SAFTA) came into effect from Ist December, 2005
2. As per SAFTA agreement terms, India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka have to decrease their custom duties to the level of 0 to 5
percent by the year 2013.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

119. Which one the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Recent Scientific Achievement C ountry
a) Creating the world ’s first mouse with : United Kingdom
a full human chromosome
b) Cloning a human embryo for the : Germany
first time
c) Guiding a spacecraft for collision : United States of
with a comet A m erica
d) Landing a spacecraft on an asteroid : Japan

120. Which one among the following is not a good source of nutritional calcium?
a) Rice
b) Ragi
c) Skimmed milk
d) Egg

121. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
Inventor I nvention
1. Christopher Cockerell : Hovercraft
2. David Bushnell : Submarine
3. J.C. Perrier : Steamship
Select the correct answer by using the code given below :
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

122. Which one among the following Commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the
Constitution of India /
a) University Grants Commission
b) National Human Rights Commission
c) Election Commission
d) Central Vigilance Commission

123. Who among the following wrote “The Communist Manifresto ” along with Karl Marx ?
a) Emile Durkheim
b) Friedrich Engels
c) Robert Owen
d) Max Weber

124. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946 ?
a) Defence
b) External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations
c) Food and Agriculture
d) None

125. Who among the following was presented with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Ratna Award, 2005 for her life time
achievement in dance ?
a) Chandralekha
b) Tanjavur Balasarswati
c) Uma Sharma
d) Yamini Krishnamurthy

126. Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address
global warming ?
a) Australia
b) Germany
c) Japan
d) New Zealand

127. Consider the following statements :
1. A person who has held office as permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any
authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a
judicial office in the territory of India .
Page 18
CSP2006 GS Question Paper
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

128. Each of 8 identical balls is to be placed in the squares shown in the figure given above in a horizontal direction such that one
horizontal row contains 6 balls and the other horizontal row contains 2 balls. In how many maximum different ways can this be
done ?
a) 38
b) 28
c) 16
d) 14

129. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
a) Slovenia : Bratislava
b) Seychelles : Victoria
c) Sierra Leone : Freetown
d) Uzbekistan : Tashkent
130. Who is Wole Soyinka ?
a) A well-known economist
b) A well-known football player
c) A well-known industrialist owning steel plants in many parts of the world
d) A Nobel Prize winner for literature

131. Consider the following statements :
1. L ength of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.
2. H armattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African Coast .
3. G reene and Albania form a part of the Iberian Penninsula
Which of the statements given above is / are correct /
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 only

132. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Well known company M ajor Area of Work
a) Adobe Systems India : Software
b) Sasken : Communication technology
c) Genpact : Power Generation
d) Synthite : Export of spices

133. match List I (National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary) with List II (Nearby Town) and select the correct answer using the code
given below the lists :
List I L i st II
(National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary) (Nearby Town)
1. Chandra Prabha 1 . Jaipur
2. Karera 2 . Jhansi
3. Jaisamand 3 . Agra
D. Nahargarh 4 . Varanasi
5 . Udaipur
Code
A B C D
a) 4 1 5 2
b) 5 2 3 1
c) 4 2 5 1
d) 5 1 3 2

134. Match List I (Author) with List II (Book) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I L i st II
(Author) ( B ook)
A. Amartya Sen 1. An Ordinary Person’s Guide to Empire
B. Bimal Jalan 2 . The Argumentative Indian
C. Arundhati Roy 3. The Future of India
D. Mani Shankar Aiyar 4. Confessions of a Secular Fundamentalist
Code
A B C D
a) 3 2 1 4
b) 2 3 4 4
c) 3 2 4 1
d) 2 3 4 1

135. Which one of the following countries is not a member of Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) /
a) Armenia
b) Belarus
c) Estonia
d) Georgia

136. Consider the following statements
1. I n India , during the financial year 2004-2005 an increase of below 10% over the value of exports (in rupee terms) in the
financial year 2003-2004 was reported.
2. A ccording to the WTO, India ’s share in the world merchandise exports crossed 2% in the year 2005.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) B oth 1 and 2
d) N either 1 nor 2

137. Consider the following statements
1. Meningococcal Meningitis is transmitted from person to person by mosquito bites
2. Vomitting and neck pain are two of the symptoms of Meningococcal Meningitis.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

138. What was the main reason for which Niger was in the news in recent times ?
a) Many deaths due to AIDS
b) Fierce civil war
c) Intense fighting with Algeria
d) Famine and starvation

139. Which one the following is not correctly matched ?
Prominent Indian Writer L anguage
a) Raja Rao : Telgu
b) Gobind Tribuk Deshpande : Marathi
c) Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil
d) Tara Shankar Joshi : Gujarati

140. Match List I (Finding / Invention / Calculation) with List II (Ancient Indian Scholar) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I L i st II
Finding/Invention/Calculation ( Ancient Indian Scholar)
A. Time taken by the Earth to orbit the sun 1. Aryabhatta
B. Calculation of the value of p (pi) 2. Bhaskaracharya
C. Invention of the digit zero 3 . Budhayana
D. The game of snakes and ladders 4. Gyandev
Code
A B C D
a) 2 4 1 3
b) 1 3 2 4
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 1 4 2 3

141. What is the approximate mean velocity with which the Earth moves round the Sun its orbit ?
a) 20 km/s
b) 20 km/s
c) 40 km/s
d) 50 km/s

142. From north towards south, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given rivers in India ?
a) Shyok – Spiti – Zaskar – Satluj
b) Shyok – Zaskar – Spiti – Satluj
c) Zaskar – Shyok – Satluj – Spiti
d) Zaskar – Satluj – Shyok – Spiti

143. Through which of one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass ?
a) Brazil , Zambia and Malaysia
b) Colombia , Kenya and Indonesia
c) Brazil , Sudan and Malayisa
d) Venezuela , Ethiopia and Indonesia

144. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Well known Place Country
a) Baikonour : Russia
b) Kourou : French Guiana
c) Borobudur : Indonesia
d) Cannes : France

145. Other than India and China , which of the following groups of countries border Myanmar ?
a) Bangladesh , Thailand and Vietnam
b) Cambodia , Laos and Malayisa
c) Thailand , Vietnam and Malayisa
d) Thailand , Laos and Bangladesh

146. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I L ist II
A. Harold Pinter 1. Director-General, FAO
B. Jacques Diouf 2. President, European Commission
C. Jose Manuel Barroso 3. World Bank appointed expert for adjudicating on the Baglihr Hydel Project.
D. Raymond Lafitte 4. Litterateur
Code
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 2 3 4 1

147. Consider the following statements :
1. L ife Insurance Corporation of India is the oldest insurance company in India .
2. N ational Insurance Company Limited was nationalized the year 1972 and made a subsidiary of General Insurance
Corporation of India .
3. H eadquarters of United India Insurance Company Limited are located at Chennai
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
a) 1 , 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

148. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Railway Zone H eadquarters
a) North Eastern Railway : Gorakhpur
b) South Eastern Railway : Bhubaneshwar
c) Eastern Railway : Kolkata
d) South East Central Railway : Bilaspur

149. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
Service tax is a / an
a) direct tax levied by the Central Government.
b) indirect tax levied by the Central Government.
c) direct tax levied by the State Government.
d) indirect tax levied by the State Government.

150. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
a) Sigmund Freud : Psychoanalysis
b) Anna Freud : Child psychiatry
c) Milton Friedman : Economics
d) Eric R. Kandel : Literature

IAS Papers : General Studies Paper (Main) 2009

Ajit kumar singh — Wed, 06 Jan 2010 14:19:54 +0000

1. Critically analyze any two of the following statements with
reference to the context in which they were made (in about 150
words each)

a) “Many Englishmen honesty consider themselves the trustees for India and yet to what a condition they have reduced our country”.

b) “The Foreign power will be withdrawn but for me real freedom will come only when we free ourselves of the dominance of western education , western culture and western way of living which have been ingrained in us”.

c) “Satan cannot enter till he finds a flaw ……. A great ocean separate us educated few from the millions in our country”.

2. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each)
a) King Nongbah
b) Maski
c) Govind Guru
d) ‘ Brahmadeya ’
e) ‘ Egmore Faction’
f) ‘ Haileybury College
g) Ijara System
h) Taji Mideren
i) Gurudwara Reform Movement
j) ‘ Marumakkathayam’

3. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150
words each)
a) Mushrooming of Higher Educational Institutions was a matter of grave concern for Yashpal Committte. With reference to the relevant portion of that report give your views how to harmonise private investment and quality of education.

b) In the changing context of governance in the country, what should be the role of the UPSC?

c) In the Context of recent incidents , suggest measures on how security of passengers and property can be improved
over indian railways.

4. Answer any one of the following questions (in about 250
words each)

a) Comment on the salient features of the Integrated Energy Policy recently approved by the government and its
implication on the energy security needs of the country.

b) How far has impact of the global meltdown been reflected in the Economic Survey 2008-09? Identify some of the core areas given priority to neutralize the adverse effects of the global downturn.

5. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each)

a) Trace the significance steps in the evolution of Television in the country.
b) The Last National Family Health Survey (NFHS) displayed a very dismal picture of nutrition as regards
several indicators for average Indians. Highlights the salient aspects of this problem.

c) ‘ As we live in a plural society we need the greatest freedom to expresss our opinions even if others find it offensive’ – Do you agree ? Discuss with reference to some recent incidents in the Indian context.

6. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each)

a) Desert National Park
b) Significance of 26th November in the Country’s Polity
c) Rajiv Gandhi Seva Kendra
d) Girni Kamgar Union
e) Ayush-64
f) Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Nidhi ( GGVN)
g) Deep Joshi’s recent Achievement
h) Satya Vrat Shastri’s recent achievement
i) Pocket Veto
j) PESA , 1996

General Studies Preliminary Exam Question Papers 2009

Ambuj Meher — Thu, 31 Dec 2009 15:22:33 +0000

1. Who among the following Presidents of India served as the Secretary General of the Non-Aligned Movement for some period?

Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Varahagiri Venkatagiri
Giani Zail Singh
Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma

2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I (Person)	List II (Organization
A. Anil Agarwal	1. Gujarat Heavy Chemicals Ltd.
B. Gautam H. Singhania	2. Raymond Ltd.
C. Sanjay Dalmia	3. Vedanta Resources
D. Venugopal Dhoot	4. Videocon Group

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	1	2	4
(b)	4	1	2	3
(c)	3	2	1	4
(d)	4	2	1	3

3. To integrate cultural leaders into its meetings, which one of the following gives “Crystal Award”?

Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
World Health Organization
World Economic Forum

4. In India, which of the following states has the largest inland saline wetland?

Gujarat
Haryana
Madhya Pradesh
Rajasthan

5. Consider the following statements:

MMTC is India’s largest trading organization
Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited has been set up by MMTC jointy with the Government of Orissa

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

6. In which of the following states has India’s largest private sector sea port been commissioned recently?

Andhra Pradesh
Karnataka
Kerala
Tamil Nadu

7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Japan: Nikkei
Singapore: Shcomp
UK: FTSE
USA: Nasdaq

8. Consider the following statements:

INS Sindhughosh is an aircraft carrier
INS Viraat is a submarine

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

9. Consider the following statements:

The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops
The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

10. In India, ports are categorized as major and non-major ports. Which one of the following is a non-major port?

Kochi (Cochin)
Dahej
Paradip
New Mangalore

11. Among other things, which one of the following was the purpose for which the Deepak Parekh Committee was constituted?

To study the current socio-economic conditions of certain minority communities
To suggest measures for financing the development of infrastructure
To frame a policy on the production of genetically modified organisms
To suggest measure to reduce the fiscal deficit in the Union Budget

12. The brothers Umakanth and Ramakanth Gundecha are

Dhrupad vocalists
Kathak dancers
Sarod maestros
Tabla players

13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Famous person)	List II (Well-known for)
A. Mandakini Amte	1. Theatre director
B. Neelam Mansingh Chowdhry	2.Social service and community leadership
C. Romila Thapar	3. Dance
D. Vanashree Rao	4. History writing

Code:

	A	B	C	D
a	2	1	4	3
b	2	4	1	3
c	3	1	4	2
d	3	4	1	2

14. With reference to Stree Shakti Puraskar, for which one of the following is “Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Award” given?

Administrative skills
Achievements in scientific research
Achievements in sports and games
Courage and valour

15. In which state is the Buddhist site Tabo Monastery located?

Arunachal Pradesh
Himachal Pradesh
Sikkim
Uttarakhand

16. With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt?

Review of Centre-State relations
Review of Delimitation Act
Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues
Price reforms in the oil sector

17. Mahamastakabhisheka, a great religious event, is associated with and done for who of the following?

Bahubali
Buddha
Mahavir
Nataraja

18. Consider the following pairs:

	Tradition	State
1.	Gatka, a traditional martial art	Kerala
2.	Madhubani, a traditional painting	Bihar
3.	Singhey Khababs Sindhu Darshan Festival	Jammu and Kashmir

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

19. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

	List I (Famous person)		List II (Well-known as)
A.	Anna Hazare	1.	Lawyer
B.	Deepak Parekh	2.	Banker
C.	GVK Reddy	3.	Gandhian and social activist
D.	Harish Salve	4.	Industrialist

Code:

	A	B	C	D
a	1	2	4	3
b	1	4	2	3
c	3	2	4	1
d	3	4	2	1

20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

	List I (Famous person)		List II (Well-known as)
A.	Amrita Sher-Gil	1.	Dancer
B.	Bhimsen Joshi	2.	Painter
C.	Rukmini Devi Arundale	3.	Poet
D.	Suryakant Tripathi Nirala	4.	Singer

Code:

	A	B	C	D
a	2	1	4	3
b	2	4	1	3
c	3	1	4	2
d	3	4	1	2

21. With reference to the schemes launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements:

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
Minstry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

22. Consider the following pairs:

	Persons	Sport
1.	Anand Pawar	Chess
2.	Akhil Kumar	Boxing
3.	Shiv Shankar Prasad Chowrasia	Golf

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3

23. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

	List I (Book)		List II (Author)
A.	In Custody	1.	Amartya Sen
B.	Sea of Poppies	2.	Amitav Ghosh
C.	The Argumentative Indian	3.	Anita Desai
D.	Unaccostomed Earth	4.	Jhumpa Lahiri

Code:

	A	B	C	D
a	4	1	2	3
b	4	2	1	3
c	3	2	1	4
d	3	1	2	4

24. Among the following, who are the Agaria community?

A traditional toddy tappers community of Andhra Pradesh
A traditional fishing community of Maharashtra
A traditional silk-weaving community of Kerala
A traditional salt pan workers community of Gujarat

25. Recently, which one of the following was included in the UNESCO’s World Heritage list?

Dilwara Temple
Kalka-Simla Railway
Bhiterkania Mangrove Area
Vishakapatnam to Araku valley railway line

26. Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?

Bhadrachalam
Chidambaram
Hampi
Srikalahasti

27. Other than Venezuela, which one among the following from South America is member of OPEC?

Argentina
Brazil
Ecuador
Bolivia

28. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?

Prime Minister’s Office
Cabinet Secretariat
Ministry of Power
Ministry of Science and Technology

29. Consider the following pairs:

	Large Bank	Country
1.	ABN Amro	USA
2.	Barclays Bank	UK
3.	Kookmin Bank	Japan

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1 only
2 only
1 and 2
2 and 3

30. Which among the following countries has the largest reserves of uraniam?

Australia
Canada
Russian Federation
USA

31. Elephant Pass, which is frequently in the news, is mentioned in the context of affairs of which one of the following?

Bangladesh
India
Nepal
Sri Lanka

32. Consider the following countries:

Brunei Darussalam
East Timor
Laos

Which of the above is/are members of ASEAN?

1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

33. Consider the following countries:

Switzerland
Malta
Bulgaria

Which of the above are members of the European Union?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

34. Consider the following countries:

Australia
Namibia
Brazil
Chile

Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?

1 only
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1, 2, 3 and 4

35. In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following?

Aluminum
Chromium
Iron
Silicon

36. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Berlin – Rhine
London – Thames
New York – Hudson
Vienna – Danube

37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

	List I (Famous Temple)		List II (State)
A.	Vidyashankara temple	1.	Andhra Pradesh
B.	Rajarani temple	2.	Karnataka
C.	Kandariya Mahadeo temple	3.	Madhya Pradesh
D.	Bhimesvara temple	4.	Orissa

Code:

	A	B	C	D
a	2	4	3	1
b	2	3	4	1
c	1	4	3	2
d	1	3	4	2

38. Consider the following statements:

In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the western margins of continents within the trade wind belt
In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

39. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

	List I (Geographic feature)		List II (Country)
A.	Great Victoria Desert	1.	Australia
B.	Grand Canyon	2.	Canada
C.	Lake Winnipeg	3.	New Zealand
D.	Southern Alps	4.	USA

Code:

	A	B	C	D
a	2	4	3	1
b	2	3	4	1
c	1	4	3	2
d	1	3	4	2

40. Consider the following statements:

Between Census 1951 and Census 2001 the density of the population of India has increased more than three times
Between Census 1951 and Census 2001 the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

41. Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?

Beas
Chenab
Ravi
Sutlej

42. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched is located on the coast of

Florida
Virginia
North Carolina
South Carolina

43. At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important river flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea?

Amarkantak
Badrinath
Mahabaleshwar
Nasik

44. Who of the following scientists proved that stars with mass less 1.44 times the mass of the Sun end up as White Dwarfs when they die?

Edwin Hubble
S. Chandrasekhar
Stephen Hawking
Steven Weinberg

45. Which one of the following brings out the publication called “Energy Statistics” from time to time?

Central Power Research Institute
Planning Commission
Power Finance Corporation Ltd.
Central Statistical Organization

46. Consider the following statements:

India does not have any deposits of Thorium
Kerala’s monazite sands contain Uranium

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

47. Which one among the following South Asian countries has the highest population density?

India
Nepal
Pakistan
Sri Lanka

48. Consider the following statements:

The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act of 1935
The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of All India Federation to be based on a Union of the provinces of British India and the Princely States

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following:

Fringe Benefit Tax
Interest Tax
Securities Transaction Tax

Which of the above is/are Direct Tax/Taxes?

1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

50. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?

Prime Minister
Minister of Water Resources
Minister of Environment and Forests
Minister of Science and Technology

51. Consider the following statements:

There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala
There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

52. In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff, who of the following established the Hindu College at Calcutta?

Henry Loius Vivian Derozio
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Keshab Chandra Sen
Raja Rammohan Roy

53. Which of the following Prime Ministers sent the Cripps Mission to India?

James Ramsay MacDonald
Stanley Baldwin
Neville Chamberlain
Winston Churchill

54. Who of the following is the author of a collection of poems called “Golden Threshold”?

Aruna Asaf Ali
Annie Besant
Sarojini Naidu
Vijayalakshmi Pandit

55. During the Indian Freedom Struggle why did the Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?

It curtailed the freedom of religion
It suppressed the Indian tradition of education
It authorized the government to imprison people without trial
It curbed the trade union activities

56. Which one of the following began with the Dandi March?

Home Rule Movement
Non-Cooperation Movement
Civil Disobedience Movement
Quit India Movement

57. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following?

Buddhism
Jainism
Sikhism
Vaishnavism

58. With which one of the following movements is the the slogan ‘Do or die’ associated?

Swadeshi Movement
Non-Cooperation Movement
Civil Disobedience Movement
Quit India Movement

59. Who of the following founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association?

Mahatma Gandhi
Sardar Vallubhai Patel
N.M. Joshi
J.B. Kriplani

60. In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, 16 October 1905 is well known for which one of the following reasons?

The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made in Calcutta town hall
Partition of Bengal took effect
Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal of Indian National Congress was Swaraj
Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poona

61. In the individual satyagraha, Vinobha Bhave was chosen as the first satyagrahi. Who was the second?

Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Rajagopalachari
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

62. Consider the following statements:

The Cripps Proposals included the provision for

Full independence for India
Creation of a Constitution-making body

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

63. During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organizer of underground activity in

Civil Disobedience Movement
Non-Cooperation Movement
Quit India Movement
Swadeshi Movement

64. With whose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat?

Akbar
Jahangir
Shahjahan
Aurangzeb

65. In a dry cell (battery), which of the following are used as electrolytes?

Ammonium chloride and Zinc chloride
Sodium chloride and Calcium chloride
Magnesium chloride and Zinc chloride
Ammonium chloride and Calcium chloride

66. Which of the following has the largest number of natural satellites or moons?

Jupiter
Mars
Saturn
Venus

67. Consider the following statements:

Sweet orange plant is propagated by grafting technique
Jasmine plant is propagated by layering technique

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

68. Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus?

Radio waves
Microwaves
Infra-red waves
None of the above

69. In the context of genetic disorders, consider the following:

A woman suffers from colour blindness while her husband does not suffer from it. They have a son and a daughter. In this context, which one of the following statements is most probably correct?

Both children suffer from colour blindness
Daughter suffers from colour blindness while the son does not suffer from it
Both children do not suffer from colour blindness
Son suffers from colour blindness while the daughter does not suffer from it

70. A person travels 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after that 15 km due West and then 18 km due South. How far is he from the starting point?

6 km
12 km
33 km
60 km

71. Siz persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a row. C and D are standing close to each other alongside E. B is standing beside A only. A is fourth from F. Who are standing on the extremes?

A and F
B and D
B and F
None of the above

72. Which one of the following is used as an explosive?

Phosphorous trichloride
Mercuric oxide
Graphite
Nitroglycerine

73. Consider the following:

Camphor
Chicory
Vanilla

Which of the above is/are plant product/s?

1 and 2 only
3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

74. In the context of Indian wild life, the flying fox is a

Bat
Kite
Stork
Vulture

75. During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections take place and Janata Party elected?

Third
Fourth
Fifth
Sixth

76. Consider the following statements:

Infant mortality takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth
Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year

Which of the aob statements is/are correct?

1 only
2only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

77. If a Panchayat is dissoved, elections are to be held within

1 month
3 months
6 months
1 year

78. Consider the following statements:

The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh
The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

79. Consider the following pairs

	Organization	Location of Headquarters
1.	Asian Development Bank	Tokyo
2.	Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation	Singapore
3.	Association of South East Asian Nations	Bangkok

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only

80. With reference to the United Nations, consider the following statements:

The Economic and Social Council of UN consists of 24 member States
It is elected by a 2/3rd majority of the General Assembly for a 3-year term

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

81. In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found?

Nilgiri Hills
Nicobar Islands
Spiti Valley
Lakshadweep Islands

82. Consider the following statements:

The Advocate General of a state in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state
As provided in the Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the state level

Which of the statements given above is/are true?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Niether 1 nor 2

83. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?

Calcutta
Madras
Bombay
Delhi

84. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:

An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto
Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalats

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

85. With reference to the Union government, consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of the Lok Sabha only
The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

86. Which one of the following constitutional amendments states that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total members of the House of the People?

90th
91st
92nd
93rd

87. Consider the following statements:

Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri
The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

88. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15 August 1947 was 18
The number of Ministries at present is 36

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

89. Consider the following statements:

The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour
The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

90. Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Catagena Protocol on Biosafety?

Ministry of Science and Technology
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Ministry of Environment and Forests
Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizer

91. Where is the headquarters of the Animal Welfare Board of India located?

Ahmedabad
Chennai
Hyderabad
Kolkata

92. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning:

The Second Five-Year Pland emphasised the establishment of heavy industries
The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialiasation

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

93. Consider the following statements:

The National School of Drama was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1959
The highest honour conferred by the Sahitya Akademi on a writer is by electing him its Fellow

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

94. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary
Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the recommendation of the Prime Minister

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

95. A person has 4 coins each of different denomination. What is the number of different sums of money the person can form (using one or more coins)?

96. How many numbers lie between 300 and 500 in which 4 comes only one time?

99
100
110
120

97. How many letters of the English alphabet (capitals) appear the same when looked at in a mirror?

98. How many three-digit numbers can be generated from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 such that the digits are in ascending order?

99. There are four persons A, B, C and D; and A has some coins. A gave half of the coins to B and 4 more besides. B gave half of the coins to C and 4 more besides. C gave half of the coins to D and 4 more besides. Both B and D end up with the same number of coins. How many coins did A have originally?

100. While adding the first few continuous natural numbers, a candidate missed one of the numbers and wrote the answer as 177. What was the number missed?

101. Four metal rods of lengths 78 cm, 104 cm, 117 cm and 169 cm are to be cut into parts of equal length. Each part must be as long as possible. What is the maximum number of pieces that can be cut ?

102. In an examination, there are three subjects A, B and C. A student has to pass in each subject. 20% students failed in A, 22% students failed in B and 16% failed in C. The total number of students passing the whole examination lies between

42% and 84%
42% and 78%
58% and 78%
58% and 84%

103. There is a family of 6 persons A, B, C, D, E and F. There are two married couples in the family. The family members are lawyer, teacher, salesman, engineer, accountant and doctor. D, the salesman is married to the lady teacher. The doctor is married to the lawyer. F, the accountant is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law pf A. E is the unmarried engineer. A is the grandmother of F. How is E related to F ?

Brother
Sister
Father
Cannot be established (cannot be determined)

104. How many times are an hour hand and a minute hand of a clock at right angles during their motion from 1.00 p.m. to 10.00 p.m. ?

105. There are 240 balls and n number of boxes Bv B2, B3, … , Bn. The balls are to be placed in the boxes such that B1 should contain 4 balls more than B2, B2 should contain 4 balls more than B3, and so on. Which one of the following cannot be the possible value of n ?

106. In a carrom board game competition, m boys and n girls (m > n > 1) of a school participate in which every student has to play exactly one game with every other student. Out of the total games played, it was found that in 221 games one player was a boy and the other player was a girl. Consider the following statements :

The total number of students that participated in the competition is 30
The number of games in which both players were girls is 78

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

107. There are three cans A, B and C. The capacities of A, B and C are 6 litres, 10 litres and 16 litres respectively. The can C contains 16 litres of milk. The milk has to be divided in them using these three cans only. Consider the following statements :

It is possible to have 6 litres of milk each in can A and can B
It is possible to have 8 litres of milk each in can B and can C.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

108. Consider the following pairs

Ashok Leyland : Hinduja Group
Hindalco Industries : A.V. Birla Group
Suzlon Energy unj Lloyd Group

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

1 and 2
2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

109. In the context of global economy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

JP Morgan Chase : Financial Services
Roche Holding AG: Financial Services
WLRoss& Co.:Private Equity Firm
Warburg Pincus:Private Equity Firm

110. Consider the following houses :

Christie’s
Osian’s
Sotheby’s

Which of the above is/are auctioneer/ auctioneers ?

1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

111. In the context of C02 emission and Global Warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ?

Carbon Footprint
Carbon Credit Rating
Clean Development Mechanism
Emission Reduction Norm

112. The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following ?

Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro
Kyoto Protocol
Montreal Protocol
G-8 Summit, Heiligendamm

113. Who among the following is the founder of World Economic Forum ?

Klaus Schwab
John Kenneth Galbraith
Robert Zoellick
Paul Krugman

114. The Security Council” of UN consists of 5 permanent members, and the remaining 10 members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of

1 year
2 years
3 years
5 years

115. From which one of the following did Kosovo declare its independence ?

Bulgaria
Croatia
Macedonia
Serbia

116. Which one of the following pairs of countries fought wars over a region called Ogaden ?

Eritrea and Sudan
Ethiopia and Somalia
Kenya and Somalia
Ethiopia and Sudan

117. In the middle of the year 2008 the Parliament of which one of the following countries became the first in the world to enact a Climate Act by passing “The Climate Change Accountability Bill” ?

Australia
Canada
Germany
Japan

118. Which one among the following has the highest energy ?

Blue light
Green light
Red light
Yellow light

119. In the context of independent India’s economy, which one of the following was the earliest event to take place ?

Nationalisation of Insurance companies
Nationalisation of State Bank of India
Enactment of Banking Regulation Act
Introduction of First Five-Year Plan

120. Consider the following pairs :

BMW AG :USA
Daimler AG : Sweden
Renault S.A. : France
Volkswagen AG : Germany

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

1, 2 and 3
3 and 4
4 only
1, 2 and 4

121. Which one of the following is not a drug/pharma company ?

Chevron
Nicholas Piramal
Pfizer
Zydus Cadila

122. Who of the following is the author of the book “The Audacity of Hope” ?

Al Gore
Barack Obama
Bill Clinton
Hillary Clinton

123. A present group of nations known as G-8 started first as G-7. Which one among the following was not one of them ?

Canada
Italy
Japan
Russia

124. Consider the following statements :

The Baglihar Power Project had been constructed within the parameters of the Indus Water Treaty.
The project was completely built by the Union Government with loans from Japan and the World Bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

125. When Leander Paes won the “mixed doubles” at the US Open in the year 2008, who of the following was his partner ?

Ana Ivanovic
Cara Black
Dinara Safina
Jelena Jankovic

126. In the context of Indian news in recent times, what is MCX-SX ?

A kind of supercomputer
Title of Moon Impact Probe
Stock exchange
Nuclear-powered submarine

127. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

Barbora Spotakova: Javelin throw
Pamela Jelimo : Weightlifting
Sanya Richards : Sprint
Yelena Isinbayeva: Pole Vault

128. India has recently landed its Moon Impact Probe on the Moon. Among the following countries, which one landed such probe on the Moon earlier ?

Australia
Canada
China
Japan

129. Who of the following is a football player ?

Fernando Alonso
Kimi Raikkonen
Lewis Hamilton
Nicolas Anelka

130. Consider the following pairs :

Cannes : France
Davos : Denmark
Roland Garros : The Netherlands

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

131. Among the following, which one is not football club ?

Arsenal
Aston Villa
Chelsea
Monte Carlo

132. The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an

Amphibian
Bony fish
Shark
Mammal

133. The Dul Hasti Power Station is based on which one of the following rivers ?

Beas
Chenab
Ravi
Sutlej

134. Consider the following statements :

V.K. Krishna Menon Foundation is based in New Delhi.
The first recipient of the V.K. Krishna Menon Award is the Chief Justice of India, KG. Balakrishnan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

135. Which one of the following is the country’s administrative capital/new federal administrative centre of Malaysia ?

Kota Bharu
Kuala Terengganu
Putrajaya
Taiping

136. In the context of Indian defence, consider the following statements :

The Shourya missile flies with a speed of more than 8 Mach.
The range of Shourya missile is more than 1600 km.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

137. WiMAX is related to which one of the following ?

Biotechnology
Space technology
Missile technology
Communication technology

138. For outstanding contribution to which one of the following fields is Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize given ?

Literature
Performing Arts
Science
Social Service

139. In making the saffron spice, which one of the following parts of the plant is used ?

Leaf
Petal
Sepal
Stigma

140. In the year 2008, which one of the following conducted a complex scientific experiment in which sub-atomic particles were accelerated to nearly the speed of light ?

European Space Agency
European Organization for Nuclear Research
International Atomic Energy Agency
National Aeronautics and Space Administration

141. A very big refugee camp called Dadaab, recently in the news, is located in

Ethiopia
Kenya
Somalia
Sudan

142. Consider the following names :

Ike
Kate
Gustav

Which of the above are the names of hurricanes that had occurred very recently ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

143. In the context of alternative sources of energy, ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from

Potato
Rice
Sugarcane
Wheat

144. Consider the following famous names :

Amrita Sher-Gil
Bikash Bhattacharjee
N.S. Bendre
Subodh Gupta

Who of the above is/are well known as artist(s) ?

1 only
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

145. NAMA-11 (Nama-11) group of countries frequently appears in the news in the context of the affairs of which one of the following?

Nuclear Suppliers Group
World Bank
World Economic Forum
World Trade Organization

146. In the latter half of the year 2008, which one of the following countries pulled out of Commonwealth of Independent States ?

Azerbaijan
Belarus
Georgia
Kazakhstan

147. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

	Persons in the news		Countries they belong to
A	Luisa Dias Diogo	1	Kenya
B	Mwai Kibaki	2	Mozambique
C	Rupiah Banda	3	Zambia
		4	Zimbabwe

Code

	A	B	C
a	1	2	3
b	2	1	3
c	2	1	4
d	1	2	4

148.Consider the following regions :

Eastern Himalayas
Eastern Mediterranean region
North-western Australia

Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)?

1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

149. With reference to the evolution of living organisms, which one of the following sequences is correct ?

Octopus — Dolphin — Shark
Pangolin – Tortoise – Hawk
Salamander — Python — Kangaroo
Frog — Crab — Prawn

150. The Panda belongs to the same family as that of

Bear
Cat
Dog
Rabbit