* All-party meeting in West Bengal decided to rename the state as Paschimbanga.
* Stealth frigate Statpura commissioned into navy.
* Historian and Indologist Ram Sharan Sharma died.
* Leader Paes and Mahesh Bhupati won the doubles title at Cincinnati tennis match.
* Government and Team Anna held talks to reach truce.
* Haryana lifted ceiling on non-farm land.
* Baichung Bhutia brought down the curtain on his international career.
* Fast attack warship INS Karuva inducted into Navy.
* K. Rosaiah appointed new Tamil Nadu Governor.
* Birla Corp suspended mining in Rajasthan.
* Indian Finished 8th in the WSF men’s world team squash championship held in Germany.
* Juvenile Justice (amendment) Bill introduced in Lok Sabha.
* Sucheta 33 year old women from Pune became first Indian woman to cross Gobi desert.
* Former TN Governor and political analyst PC Alexander died.
* Lok Sabha passed SBI Subsidiary Banks Bill.
* BrahMos Varian Block III supersonic cruise missile test-fired successfully.
* Indian cricket team lost the No. 1 Test rank to England.
* Veteran actor Shammi Kapoor died.
* PM Manmohan Singh addressed the nation on 65th Independence Day.
* New Indian Chief suspended over credit over for Paramount Air.
* N A K Browne has been takes charge as the 23rd chief of the Indian Air Force.
* Coal India Ltd. Dethroned Reliance Industries Ltd. as most valued firm.
* National Sports awards announced.
* Ronjan Sodhi has been ranked world No.1 in double trap shooting as per the ISSF world rankings.
* HDFC bank has launched a service of accepting income tax payment through ATMs.
* Gagan Narang Ace Indian shooter is set to get Khel Ratna.
* Prahaar missile was recently test-fired successfully at Chandipur, Orrisa.
* Rahul Dravid became 2nd highest run scorer in Test cricket surpassing Ricky Ponting’s record.
* Former Supreme Court Judge Shivraj V.Patil has been appointed as Lokayukta of Karnataka to succeed Santosh Hegde.
* Shammi Kapoor bollywood actor passed away recently.
* Month-long monsoon session of Parliament began.
* Centre agreed to a Rs.19000 Crore ballout package for West Bengal.
* The first-ever Kashmir Premier League (KPL) T-20 Chinar Cup-2011 ended.
* DV Sadananda Gowda sworn in as Chief Minister of Karnataka.
* SC partially lifted mining ban in Bellary.
* Indian archers won three silver medals in the Archery World Cup in Ogden.
* N-E body sought national drink status for tea.
* Indian wrestlers won 49 medals in the commonwealth wrestling championship in Melbourne.
* Aditya Mehta clinched the 78th National Snooker Championship title.

The civil services got a major upliftment with the introduction of CSAT. Earlier the government of India had witnessed some irregularities with the pattern of preliminary examination as not all topics were given due attention and the overall paper was a sort of unfair treatment for applicants. This is the exact reason why UPSC and the Indian government came up with the CSAT.

The UPSC CSAT stands for the Civil Services Aptitude Test and will test the aptitude of the applicant unlike its previous counterpart which tests memory of a contender. It has changes in its General Studies paper. You will be surprised to know that nearly five million applicants submit an application for the preliminary civil services examination. Thus the competition is fierce, cut throat and not to mention aggressive which is why it is imperative for you to lay your hands on CSAT Study Material and make certain that you are prepared to embark on this journey.

Here are some tips to help you excel in your endeavor. Go through NCERT Books from class vi to x and always remain up to date by reading newspaper daily. Going through regular magazines which proffer significant insights into GK, current affairs, etc. will also be an added advantage. Make sure you are medically fit and that your personality is a superior one. It is also imperative to work on your communication skills and make certain that you are fully prepared for interview if you passed the written exams.

Prepare at least a year or more in advance as the preparation will surely consume some time keeping in eye the vast curriculum. Not only you have to excel in the prelim and the main written examination, but also have to perform excellently in the interview round as all the marks are combined and your result depends on the performance in each one of them. Also make sure that you put into practice CSAT Practice Tests.

A meticulously sought after planning and proper & timely guidance can enable an alert individual to clear the tough UPSC examinations. According to the UPSC aspirants, half of the battle is won right after selecting the right optionals for the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) selection examination. Provided that optionals in each IAS preliminary and IAS mains examination determine a candidate’s scoring pattern, questions asked in the final interview are based on the choice of optional subjects chosen. This makes the decision extremely difficult as well as critical.

There is a plethora of subjects to choose from, since students belong to varied streams of education, the subjects on offer include Science subjects that expands over Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology; Humanities subjects that expands over History, Political Science, Public Administration, Geography and Sociology and languages such as Hindi, English, Urdu and Pali. UPSC also offers subjects such as Anthropology, Psychology and Philosophy. Additionally, the more number of subjects make it more difficult for students to make choices in optionals.

Optional subjects are chosen on the basis of a number of parameters, on one hand there are optionals that are considered to be scoring where as there are others that are favored for their relevance to either General Studies papers or Current Affairs and essay questions whereas there are many who choose subjects for their defined set of topics asked and comparatively short type answers. Students feel that this bit of planning makes their choice of subject a success as there are combinations that have common IAS syllabus which reduces their workloads and improves their chances of scoring in civil services examination.

Likewise botany and zoology are two complementary optionals that have common syllabus as these prove to be advantageous for their future. The IAS syllabus talks about emerging issues such as genetically modified (GM) foods, cloning, biotechnology and environmental sensitization. However, students should also show their aptitude skills for the subject they choose as they require a fair degree of specialized knowledge. While preparing for the optional, it is advised to study first for the IAS mains paper and then prepare for IAS preliminary as this provides students an edge and then allow them to specialize in certain scoring areas.

The foremost thing you need to consider while looking for Civil Services like IAS is to make a wise selection of subjects for the Preliminary as well as for the Main Examinations. Often you will have choice of choosing the subjects you are familiar with. Make sure that you choose the subject you are comfortable with.
Always do an analytical study of previous years’ syllabus and question papers. Look for the pattern of the subject you have chosen. It is always better to seek advice from seniors and colleagues to keep confusion at bay at higher level of the exam.
The IAS exam preparation must be done in a perfect manner. Prepare for General Studies at the same time, while preparing for optional papers. You can adjust your timings for both; thus you will not be bored and be able to give more time to your studies.
Never, ever compromise with your optional subjects for General Studies as every question in optional subjects will get you 2.5 marks and the paper will be of 300 marks in total. Most importantly, the input and output ration is lots better in optional compared to General Studies.
The prominent thing in preparing for the IAS preliminary exams is to identify your weak points and work on them effectively.
Only way to be successful in the exam, in addition to rigorous hard work, is planned and systematic study. Prepare a schedule as per your convenience and stick to it.
It is essential to read newspapers and magazines regularly. Other than keeping you updated with current affairs, you will also get to know how facts are presented in a clear manner. Current issues are addressed in all Civil Services Exams, so it is a must that you are aware of recent happenings in not only India, but across the World.
Complete your entire syllabus at least a month prior to the main exam. Keep the syllabus handy so that you can tally it time and again to be sure that you are not wasting your precious time in studying topics which are not of much relevancy in the exam.
Consider the question papers of previous years and see the pattern of questions asked and point out which types of questions are often repeated.
It is best if you attempt previous years question papers. This will help you know your mistakes and weak points better. Additionally, it will help you in improving your speed and accuracy too.

In the end, no doubt, IAS exam is an important exam, but depression or nervousness will not take you anywhere. So have faith in yourself and keep on moving steadily. Remember, quality of time you put in your preparation is far important than the quantity of time.

1. ‘A’ and ‘B’are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist ‘C’ moves such that ACS is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse
The path followed by the cyclist is a circle
The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve
This type of motion is not possible
Correct Answer is (b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle

2. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in
Bihar
Chattisgarh
Jharkhand
Orissa
Correct Answer is (c) Jharkhand

3. Among the following commodities imported by India during the year 2000-01, which one was the highest in terms of Rupee value?
Edible oil
Fertilizers
Organic and inorganic chemicals
Pearls, precious and semi- precious stones
Correct Answer is (a) Edible oil

4. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements:
1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.
2.Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both land 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (a) Only 1

5. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
The presence of NaCl increase me rate of setting of Plaster of Paris
Gypsum is added to the cement to slowdown its rate of setting.
All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts
Barium and Strontium are found free in nature
Correct Answer is (d) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature

6. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
IPCL is India’s largest petrochemical company
RIL is the largest private sector company in India
MTNL is listed on NYSE
BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time
Correct Answer is (c) MTNL is listed on NYSE

7. Which amongst the following States has thehighest population density as per Census-2001 ?
Kerala
Madhya Pradesh
UttarPradesh
West Bengal
Correct Answer is (d) West Bengal

8. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitutionwas added by
First Amendment
Eighth amendment
Ninth Amendment
Forty Second Amendment
Correct Answer is (a) First Amendment

9. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in theyear 1946?
Rajendra Prasad
Jawaharlal Nehru
Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Rajagopalachari
Correct Answer is (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

10. The waterfall ‘Victoria’ is associated with theRiver
Amazon
Missouri
St. Lawrence
Zambeji
Correct Answer is (d) Zambeji

11. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha 1928)Was
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Mahatma Gandhi
Vithlbhai J. Patel
Mahadev Desai
Correct Answer is (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

12. The Kelkar proposals which were in the newsrecently were the
recommendations for reforms in the powersector
recommendations for tax reforms
guidelines for the privatization of publicsector undertakings
Guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution and the promotion of cng use
Correct Answer is (b) recommendations for tax reforms

Question No : 13

13. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two House ofIndian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission Repeal) Bill.
Which of/these statements is correct?
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1,2 and 3
Correct Answer is (d) 1,2 and 3

14. Life expectancy is highest in the world in
Canada
Germany
Japan
Norway
Correct Answer is (c) Japan

15. During the colonial period in India, what was the purpose of the Witley Commission?
To review the fitness of India for further political reforms
To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations
To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India
To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India
Correct Answer is (b) To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations

16. Octopus is
an arthropod
an echinoderm
a hemichordate
a mollusc
Correct Answer is (d) a mollusc

17. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body:
1. Swollen Lymph nodes
2. Sweating at night
3. Loss of memory
4. Loss of weight
Which of these are symptoms of AIDS?
l and 2
2,3 and 4
I,3and4
I,2,3and4
Correct Answer is (d) I,2,3and4

18. Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped on the Narmada river by
Pulakesin-I
Pulakesin-ll
Vikramaditya-1
Vikramaditya-11
Correct Answer is (b) Pulakesin-ll

19. Under which Article of the Indian constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes in the year 2002)?
Article 121
Article 122
Article 123
Article 124
Correct Answer is (c) Article 123

20. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a
) literateur
Musician
scientist
sportsperson
Correct Answer is (a) ) literateur

21. Consider the following statements:
1. The Maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in India is 49 per cent of the paid up capital.
2. Foreign Direct Investment upto 49 per cent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in India under the automatic route.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both l and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2

22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List-I cricketers) List II (country)
A.Barry Rchards 1.England
B. Tex Dexter 2.West Indies
C. Alan Davidson 3. South Africa
D. Charlie Griffith 4. New Zealand
5. Australia

A-3 B-2 C-5 D-1
A-5 B-1 C-4 D-2
A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2
A-5 B-2 C-4 D-1
Correct Answer is (c) A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2

23. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to
orientation
shape
size
spin
Correct Answer is (a) orientation

24. Consider the following statements:
1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans.
2.The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

25. Which among the following countries has the largest population?
Indonesia
Japan
Pakistan
Sudan
Correct Answer is (a) Indonesia

26. Assertion A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

27. Assertion A): During the year 2001-02, the value of India’s total exports declined, registering a negative growth of 2.17%
Reason R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, textiles and marine products.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

28. Assertion A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.
Reason R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (c) A is true but R’is false

29. Assertion A): The EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.
Reason R): GATT has played a significant role in the liberalisation of the economy.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

30. Assertion A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in 4 group.
Reason R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

31. Assertion A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain.
Reason R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

32. Assertion R) : ted when coal burns. The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.
Reason R) : The earth is not a perfect sphere.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

33. Assertion R): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.
Reason R) : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (c) A is true but R’is false

34. Assertion R) : The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason R) : The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

35. Assertion R) : Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason R) : The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest in very high when compared to that of temperate forests.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

36. Assertion R) : In 1916, Maulana Moha-mmad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative council.
Reason R) : The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true

37. Assertion R) : Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an Emperor from the north-west frontier.
Reason R) :There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

38. Assertion R) : Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator re- ceive rainfall throughout theyear.
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

39. Assertion A) : Saluva Narasimha put anend to the old dynasty andassumed the royal title.
Reason R He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

40. Assertion A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a untitled Indian nation.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R’is false
A is false but R is true
Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

41. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?
China
India
Indonesia
Sri Lanka
Correct Answer is (b) India

42. Consider the following statements:
1. In Mecedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority.
2. In Kosovo, Serbians are a majority.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

43. Israel has common borders with
Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
Turkey, Syia, Iraq and Yemen
Correct Answer is (a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

44. What is the correct sequence of the rivers-Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?
Godavari – Mahanadi – Narmada – Tapi
Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi
Narmada – Godavari – Tapi – Mahanadi
Narmada – Tapi – Godavari – Mahanadi
Correct Answer is (b) Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi

45. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by oneper cent, its mass remaining the same, the valueof ‘g’ on the earth’s surface would
increase by 0.5 %
increase by 2%
decrease by 0.5%
decrease by 2%
Correct Answer is (b) increase by 2

46. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
Under the leadership of Duplex, the Frenchoccupied Madras in 1746
Correct Answer is (a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499

47. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachiopposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Correct Answer is (d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachiopposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact

48. Consider the following statements :
1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%
2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the year 2001-2002.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

49. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world
India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world
India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
India ranks third in the world in coal production
Correct Answer is (b) India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world

50. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok sabha can have nominated members
There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister
A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Correct Answer is (c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister

51. With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment FDI) during the year 2001-02, consider the following statements:
1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in tea sector, the foreign ‘firm would have to disin-vest 33% of the equity in favour of an Indian partner within four years.
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, thesingle largest Indian shareholders should havea holding higher than 26%.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

52. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was
an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was ill-treated and expelled from the country
the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe
Correct Answer is (a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi

53. The battle of Dharmat was fought between
Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
Babur and Afghans
Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
Correct Answer is (c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh

54. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?
Kolkata
Kochi
Mumbai
Visakhapatnam
Correct Answer is (b) Kochi

55. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags different codes can be generated by waving
i) single flag in a different sequence of colours, or
ii) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or
iii) three flags in a different sequence of colours.
The maximum umber of codes that can be generated is
6
9
15
18
Correct Answer is (c) 15

56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List-I Organisation) List II (Location)
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee
C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune
Institute of National Integration 4 . Hyderabad
5. Kanpur

A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
A-5 B-1 C-4 D-3
A-3 B-4 C-5 D-2
A-5 B-4 C-2 D-3
Correct Answer is (d) A-5 B-4 C-2 D-3

57. Tim Montgomery set .a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in
Long Jump
110m Hurdle Race
100m Dash
High Jump
Correct Answer is (c) 100m Dash

58. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
Only l
Only 2
Both l and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2

59. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will
decrease in size
flatten into a disc-like shape
increase in size
maintain the same size and shape
Correct Answer is (c) increase in size

60. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative powers rests with
The President of India
The Chief Justice of India
The Parliament
The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Correct Answer is (c) The Parliament

The Preliminary Examination consists of two papers of objective type (multiple-choice questions) carrying a maximum of 400 marks. The Question Papers are set in English & Hindi

Civil Services Aptitude Test
The new Recruitment Process of Civil Services Exam is called the CSAT or the Civil Services Aptitude Test.CSAT will not only enable us to choose civil servants with right aptitudes but also end the use of scaling system for varying subjects that has been a matter of concern for many.

From Civil Service Examination 2011, Preliminary Examination would consist of two papers- Paper I and Paper II. The syllabus and pattern of the Preliminary Examination would be as under :

(Paper 1) (200 marks) – Duration : Two hrs.

Current events of national and international importance
History of India and Indian national movement
Indian and World Geography- physical, social, economic geography of India and the world
Indian Polity and governance – constitution, political system, panchayati raj, public policy, Rights issues, etc.
Economic and social development – sustainable development, poverty, inclusion, demographics, social sector initiatives etc.
General issues on environmental ecology, bio-diversity and climate change-that donot require subject specialization
General science.

(Paper II) (200 marks) – Duration : Two hrs

Comprehension
Interpersonal skills including communication skills
Logical reasoning and analytical ability
Decision making and problem solving
General mental ability
Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc. (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. –Class X level)
English language comprehension skills (Class X level)
Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.
The questions will be of multiple choice, objective type.

IAS Service or Civil Services Continues to be the first career choice of career aspirants in India. But have you ever wondered what it entails to become an IAS officer.

Step #1

First of all what you need to have is a thirst to excel and to keep your dream alive by working for it. “Yes, I want to become an IAS Officer, and I will work hard for it from this moment.” If you think this value is instilled in you very strongly, continue reading the following mantras.

Step #2

Know all about the IAS Exam. Starting 2011 Exam, it will be CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) in place of the present Preliminary Exam. Those who pass the CSAT will be eligible for the Civil Services main Exam followed by the interview.

Step #3

Start reading an English newspaper on a daily basis and make it a habit to write notes on important news reports. Buy one Year Book, preferably India Year Book 2010, published by Publications Division, Government of India.

Step #4

Have a good study plan. As the exam pattern is being changed with the introduction of CSAT, it is better to complete the entire portions of the Mains (GS plus 2 Optional or at least 1 optional) before January 2011. From January, your entire time should be earmarked for the CSAT.

Step #5

Post CSAT, the preparation should be continued without any break. The following five months will be more crucial than the months prior to the CSAT and the preparation should be at full momentum. After the main exam, interview preparation should begin.

Step #6

There will be temptation to give up the journey as you progress in the preparation. This is mainly due to the huge syllabus and the accumulating pressure. But be aware that these are critical moments in civil services. You should face all these pressures with courage. Be determined to clear the exam in the first attempt. Streamline your preparation on the above Step and success IAS Exam will be with you.

No matter how much you may want one of these pre-employment types of exams to go away, it never will. And the best way to deal with an examination is to embrace it and give it your best shot. After all, careful preparation is required. And this type of pre-test prep can help you learn more about how to answer the various questions carefully and concisely; thus giving you the best chance of passing as possible.

A lot of people agree that the biggest issue you need to address when preparing for an exam is time to get some hands-on practice working with common test content and subject matter. And it is true that many of us simply don’t think we have the time to study and practice, but it’s important we make time. In fact, practice is critical to test success.

Plus, preparation shouldn’t be rushed, and there’s no use just scanning through a learning resource just before an exam. Rather, proper Civil Service test preparation and practice takes time and effort. And doing such but hard work can really pay off. As a result, Civil Service test practice can be an ideal method to score big.

In the end, you really do need to score big and pass if you want to get that new career. And in order to pass, you really do need to get some practice working with common test content as well as discovering general test structure.

So, if you’re serious about preparing for your particular examination, then getting some sort of Civil Service Test Practice is an excellent way to get ready for these types of examinations.

1.     According to the Economic survey 2010-11 what percentage growth was recorded by the manufacturing sector in 2010?
a.    9.1%
b.    8.6%
c.    7.3%
d.    8%
Answer: a

2.     As per the economic Survey of India 2010-11, the production of food grains is estimated at over 232 million tonnes with record production of which food crop?
a.    Rice
b.    Wheat
c.    Bajra
d.    Maize
Answer: b

3.    What is the percentage growth of GDP predicted by The Economic Survey for the financial year 2010-11?
a.    8.6%
b.    8.3%
c.    8.0%
d.    9.1%
Answer: a

4.      The Economic Survey estimated the Forex reserves of India at over 297 billion US dollars. The surge in Forex is attributed to growth in which of the following sector?
a.    Export sector
b.    Foreign Direct Investments
c.    Agricultural output
d.    Industrial output
Answer: a

5.        Gross Fiscal Deficit stands at 4.8% of GDP. What was the percentage of Gross Fiscal Deficit in 2010?
a.    6.3%
b.    5.8%
c.    5.0%
d.    7.1%
Answer: a

6.   Agriculture is expected to grow by what percentage in 2010-11 as per the Economic Survey?
a.    5.0%
b.    5.1%
c.    5.4%
d.    5.5%
Answer: c

7.      What percentage of GDP growth at market prices was estimated by the Economic Survey 2010-11?    a.    9.0%
b.    9.5%
c.    9.7%
d.    10.0%
Answer: c

8.        Exports surged by what percentage in the period between April to December 2010?
a.    25.0%
b.    29.5%
c.    18.1%
d.    33.0%
Answer: b

9.     Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from 1 lakh 60 to _?
a.    1 lakh 80 thousand
b.    1 lakh 90 thousand
c.    2 lakh
d.    2 lakh 20 thousand
Answer: a

10. Which of the following was not proposed in the Union Budget 2011-12 presented by pranab Mukherjee?
1.    Special vehicles were proposed to be created in the form of Infrastructure Debt Funds to attract foreign funds.
2.    Rs. 300 crore expenditure was proposed to promote horticulture centres in rain fed areas for increasing crop productivity.
3.    For the manufacturing sector, the budget proposed reduction of basic customs duty on raw silk from 30 to 5 per cent.
4.    Concessional 10 per cent Excise Duty was also proposed for fuel cell or Hydrogen cell-technology-based vehicles.
a.    1 & 3
b.    Only 2
c.    Only 4
d.    3 & 4
Answer: b

11.     In the Budget it was proposed to provide sum of money for implementation of vegetable initiative to set in motion a virtuous cycle of higher production and incomes for the farmers. What was the proposed amount?
a.    Rs 500 crore
b.    Rs 300 crore
c.    Rs 10000 crore
d.    Rs 650 crore
Answer: b

12. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was proposed to be being extended to the beneficiaries of which of the following Union Government schemes?
a.  Mahatma Gandhi NREGA beneficiaries
b. Beneficiaries of Swavlamban pension scheme
c. Indira Gandhi National old Age Pension scheme beneficiaries
d.Beneficiaries of Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
Answer: a

13. Acknowledging the need for development of J&K and North-east, Mamata Banerjee introduced in the Railway Budget 2011 a number measures for these two regions. In which of the following North-eastern cities did the budget propose to set up a diesel locomotive centre?
a.    Imphal
b.    Manipur
c.    Guwahati
d.    Tripura
Answer: b

14.    Read the two statements with regard to the passenger benefit plans proposed in the Railway Budget 2011.
1.The budget proposed extension of Train Management System to New Delhi, Bangalore, Secunderabad, Ahmedabad and Lucknow stations to provide information on running of trains.
2.Mamta Banerjee introduced a new concept of Smart Card – Go India for long distance travel by Indian railways.
Which of the two statements are true?
a.    Only 1
b.    Only 2
c.    Both 1 & 2
d.    None of the above
Answer: c

15. According to Railway Budget 2011, railway card passes would be extended to the parents of the unmarried posthumous winners of which of the following Awards?
1.    Param Vir Chakra
2.    Bharat Ratna
3.    Ashok Chakra gallantry award
4.    Padma Shri
a.    1 & 2
b.    2 & 3
c.    1, 2 & 3
d.    1 & 3
Answer: d

16. Which of the following schemes proposed in the Railway Budget 2011 is/are not meant for Railway Employees?
1.    Expansion of Liberalized Active Retirement Scheme for Guaranteed Employment
2.    Railway Vidyalaya Prabandhan Board
3.    Sukhi Griha Scheme
4.    Pradhan Mantri Rail Vikas Yojana
a.    1 & 3
b.    3 & 4
c.    2 & 4
d.    1 & 4
Answer: b

17. The electrical energy requirement of railways is growing rapidly with the expansion of the rail infrastructure and traffic. Considering the rising demand the Ministry of Railways proposed to set up 700 MW power plant at Thakurli in Maharashtra. The power plant is proposed to be based on what form of energy?
a.    gas-based
b.    coal-based
c.    solar power
d.    nuclear energy based
Answer: a

18.     Ministry of Railways proposed to extend Anti Collision Device (ACD) to which of the following Railway zones in India?
1.    Eastern zone
2.    East Central
3.    North Eastern
4.    South Central
a.    1 & 4
b.    2 & 4
c.    1 & 2
d.    1 & 3
Answer: c

19.     With regard to the infrastructure development of Railways as proposed in Railway Budget 2011 which statement/statements is/are false?
1.    The budget proposed to lay 40 new lines, covering 1075 km.
2.    The Ministry has allocated Rs 5406 crore for doubling of 867 km of lines
3.    A greater thrust was given to the expansion of the rail network with a larger allocation of Rs 9583 cr for new lines.
4.    for gauge conversion over 1017 km. Rs 13820 crore was proposed
a.    Only 1
b.    1 & 2
c.    Only 4
d.    2 & 4
Answer: c

20.     Read the two statements mentioned with regard to the budgetary allocations for addressing environmental concerns.
1.    The budget proposed that the solar lantern used in far-flung villages will attract no duty from 10 per cent charged earlier.
2.    To provide green and clean transportation for the masses, National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched in the year 2011 in collaboration with all stakeholders.
Which of them is true?
a.    Only 1
b.    Only 2
c.    Both 1 & 2
d.    None of the above
Answer: b

21.     To enhance credit worthiness of economically weaker sections and LIG households, a Mortgage Risk Guarantee Fund was announced to be created under which of the following scheme or Yojana?
a. Rajiv Awas Yojana
b. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
c. Indira Awas Yojana
d. Mahatama Gandhi NREGA
Answer: a

22.    Read the following statements with regard to the allocation in the Educational sector as proposed by Union Budget 2011-12.
1. For Sarva Siksha Abhiyan the allocation was increased by 40 percent to 21000 crore rupees.
2. All institutions of higher learning will be connected through optical fibers by March 2012.
3. 500 crore rupees was proposed to be provided for national skill development fund.
4. For the needy scheduled castes ad scheduled tribe candidates studying in class-IX and Xth pre-matric scholarship scheme was proposed to be introduced.
Which of the above mentioned statements is not true?
a.    1
b.    2
c.    3 & 4
d.    4
Answer: b

23. The Basic Customs Duty exemption was proposed to be extended to which of the following sectors?
a. art and antiquities for exhibition or display in private art galleries
b. Cinematographic film, factory-built ambulances
c. syringes and needles
d. agricultural machinery
Answer: a

24.    What amount of money was allocated for Bharat Nirman?
a. 1000 crore
b.  58000 crore
c. 55438 crore
d.  14362 crore
Answer: b

25. Which of the following statement/statements is/are true with reference to the Railway Budget 2011?
1.    Railway Minister Mamata Banerjee proposed Annual Plan for the year 2011-12 at Rs 57630 cr which is the highest ever plan investment by the railways in a single year.
2.    Under the proposed Pradhan Mantri Rail Vikas Yojana the pending socially desirable lines would be completed and other similar new line projects would also be taken up.
3.    Mamata Banerjee declared 2010-11 as the Year of Green Energy.
4.    2 AC Double Decker Trains in the Jaipur-Delhi and Delhi-Ahmedabad routes were proposed.
Choose Answers:
a. 1,2 & 3
b. 1 & 4
c.  2 & 3
d. 1 & 2
Answer: d

1.Which Indian state is the largest producer in the world of the golden coloured ‘Muga’ silk?
Assam
Orissa
West Bengal

2. Anandmath’, ‘Durgeshnondini’ and ‘Kapalkundala’ novels were authored by which Bengali writer ?
Sharat Chandra Chatterjee
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Bibhuti Bhushan Bandopadhyay

3. Which country is also known as the ‘Rainbow Nation’ ?
Australia
Switzerland
South Africa

4. Which among the following is manufactured at Avadi (abbreviation for ‘Armoured Vehicles and Ammunition Depot of India’) town in Tamilnadu ?
Maruti Cars
Tejas Aircrafts
Arjun Tanks

5. Where was the ‘Project Tiger’, the tiger protection programme, launched on 1 April 1973?
Simlipal National Park (Orissa)
Kanha National Park (Madhya Pradesh)
Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand)

6. Which among the following instrument is used for measuring wind speed ?
Anemometer
Hygrometer
Spectrometer

7. The tendency of a liquid drop to assume spherical shape is due to what ?
surface tension
viscosity
density

8. Which water body separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands ?
Palk Strait
Gulf of Mannar
Ten Degree Channel

9. Who among the following was the first woman President of the UN General Assembly?
Sarojini Naidu
Vijaya Lakshmi Pundit
Sucheta Kripalani

10. For which of the following purposes is a transformer used?
conversion of DC into AC
Regulation of fluctuation of voltage
conversion of low voltage into high voltage and vice versa

Answers:-

1.Assam
2.Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
3.South Africa
4.Arjun Tanks
5.Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand)
6.Anemometer
7.surface tension
8.Ten Degree Channel
9.Vijaya Lakshmi Pundit
10.conversion of low voltage